MCQs On Project Planning & Scheduling

1. Which of the following is defined as a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed toward achieving the goals?

  1. Project

  2. Process

  3. Project Life Cycle

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Project

Explanation:

  • A project is defined as a set of activities that are interconnected and organized in a specific order to achieve a particular goal.

  • It is temporary in nature and has a defined beginning and end.

  • A process, on the other hand, is a series of ongoing activities, and the project life cycle refers to the phases a project goes through.

2. The project life cycle consists of?

  1. Understanding the scope of the project

  2. Formulation and planning various activities

  3. Both A & B

  4. Only A

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Both A & B

Explanation:

  • The project life cycle consists of several phases, including understanding the scope of the project and formulating and planning various activities.

  • These phases ensure that the project is well-defined, planned, and executed effectively.

  • Both options A and B are essential parts of the project life cycle.

3. In Project management when does planning take place?

  1. Before the project

  2. During the project execution

  3. At the start of the project

  4. After the project

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. At the start of the project

Explanation:

  • Planning is a critical phase in project management and typically takes place at the start of the project.

  • It involves defining the project scope, objectives, resources, and timelines.

  • Planning ensures that the project is well-organized and that all stakeholders are aligned before execution begins.

4. Which of the following is the longest phase of the project management life cycle?

  1. Initiation

  2. Planning

  3. Execution

  4. Closing

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Execution

Explanation:

  • The execution phase is typically the longest phase of the project management life cycle.

  • This is when the actual work of the project is carried out, and resources are utilized to achieve the project objectives.

  • The initiation, planning, and closing phases are generally shorter in comparison.

5. Which of the following phases is to establish the project’s objectives, scope, and feasibility?

  1. Initiation

  2. Planning

  3. Execution

  4. Monitoring and control

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Initiation

Explanation:

  • The initiation phase is where the project’s objectives, scope, and feasibility are established.

  • This phase involves defining the project purpose, identifying stakeholders, and conducting a feasibility study.

  • The planning, execution, and monitoring phases come after the initiation phase.

6. Which of the following phases is to identify and mitigate risks, and to ensure that the project has the necessary resources and schedule?

  1. Initiation

  2. Planning

  3. Execution

  4. Monitoring and control

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Planning

Explanation:

  • The planning phase involves identifying and mitigating risks, as well as ensuring that the project has the necessary resources and schedule.

  • This phase includes creating a detailed project plan, risk management plan, and resource allocation plan.

  • The initiation, execution, and monitoring phases focus on different aspects of the project.

7. Which of the following phases is to deliver the project’s objectives within the defined scope, schedule, and budget?

  1. Initiation

  2. Planning

  3. Execution

  4. Monitoring and control

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Execution

Explanation:

  • The execution phase is where the project’s objectives are delivered within the defined scope, schedule, and budget.

  • This phase involves coordinating people and resources to carry out the project plan.

  • The initiation, planning, and monitoring phases are preparatory and oversight phases, respectively.

8. Which of the following is true?

  1. The project life cycle is the sequence of phases that a project goes through from its initiation to its closure

  2. The number and names of the phases can vary depending on the methodology used

  3. The goal of closure phase is to complete all project-related activities, and to document the project’s results and lessons learned.

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • The project life cycle consists of a sequence of phases from initiation to closure.

  • The number and names of these phases can vary depending on the project management methodology used (e.g., Agile, Waterfall).

  • The closure phase involves completing all project-related activities, documenting results, and capturing lessons learned.

  • Therefore, all the statements are true.

9. Which of the following are series of steps taken by project managers to develop a detailed plan for a project?

  1. Define the project objectives and goals

  2. Develop a project scope statement

  3. Create a project schedule and plan

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • Developing a detailed project plan involves defining the project objectives and goals, developing a project scope statement, and creating a project schedule and plan.

  • These steps ensure that the project is well-defined, organized, and ready for execution.

  • All the options are essential components of project planning.

10. Feasibility study determines

  1. Whether the project is possible with resources

  2. Comparing the project with world class manufacturing norms

  3. Calculate the cost crashing each unit

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Whether the project is possible with resources

Explanation:

  • A feasibility study is conducted to determine whether a project is possible with the available resources.

  • It assesses the project’s viability in terms of technical, financial, and operational aspects.

  • The other options, such as comparing with manufacturing norms or calculating cost crashing, are not primary objectives of a feasibility study.

11. Different techniques that can be used for project scheduling are

  1. Gantt charts, Critical path method (CPM)

  2. PERT and Work breakdown structure (WBS)

  3. Agile methodologies

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • Project scheduling can be done using various techniques such as Gantt charts, Critical Path Method (CPM), PERT, Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), and Agile methodologies.

  • These techniques help in planning, organizing, and managing tasks to ensure the project is completed on time.

  • All the options listed are valid project scheduling techniques.

12. Which of the following is true about Gantt chart?

  1. A Gantt chart is a visual representation of a project schedule that shows the start and end dates of each task

  2. It consists of a horizontal axis that represents time, and a vertical axis that lists all of the tasks that need to be completed for the project

  3. Gantt charts are useful for project managers because they provide a clear, visual representation of the project schedule

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • A Gantt chart is a visual tool used in project management to represent the schedule of tasks.

  • It has a horizontal axis representing time and a vertical axis listing tasks.

  • Gantt charts are highly useful for project managers as they provide a clear overview of the project timeline and task dependencies.

  • All the statements about Gantt charts are true.

13. Advantage of a Gantt Chart is

  1. It is easy to draw

  2. Its ability to visually represent activities and times

  3. It depicts Project Life Cycle

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Its ability to visually represent activities and times

Explanation:

  • The primary advantage of a Gantt chart is its ability to visually represent activities and their timelines.

  • It helps project managers and team members understand task durations, dependencies, and progress at a glance.

  • While Gantt charts are useful, they are not necessarily easy to draw, and they do not directly depict the entire project life cycle.

14. Which of the following is true?

  1. A bar chart is used to compare and show data distribution across different categories

  2. Gantt chart is used to represent and manage the schedule of a project and its tasks

  3. Both of the Above

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Both of the Above

Explanation:

  • A bar chart is used to compare data across different categories, while a Gantt chart is specifically designed to represent and manage project schedules.

  • Both types of charts serve different purposes, and the statements about their uses are correct.

  • Therefore, both options are true.

15. Which of the following is true?

  1. A bar chart and a Gantt chart are similar in that they both use horizontal bars to represent the duration and progress of tasks

  2. Bar charts are useful for quickly understanding the overall progress of a project

  3. A Gantt chart is a specialized type of bar chart that is commonly used in project management

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • Both bar charts and Gantt charts use horizontal bars, but Gantt charts are specialized for project management.

  • Bar charts are useful for comparing data, while Gantt charts are used to track project progress.

  • All the statements about the similarities and uses of bar charts and Gantt charts are true.

16. When resources required by activities are deterministic the method used in Project Management is called

  1. PERT

  2. AOA

  3. CPM

  4. Event Management

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. CPM

Explanation:

  • The Critical Path Method (CPM) is used in project management when the resources required by activities are deterministic (i.e., known with certainty).

  • CPM focuses on identifying the critical path, which is the sequence of tasks that determines the project’s duration.

  • PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) is used when activity durations are probabilistic, and AOA (Activity on Arrow) is a network diagramming technique.

17. Full form of PERT is

  1. Project Evaluation and Review Technique

  2. Project Examination and Review Technique

  3. Project Evaluation and Risk Technique

  4. Project Evaluation and Review Tricks

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Project Evaluation and Review Technique

Explanation:

  • PERT stands for Project Evaluation and Review Technique.

  • It is a project management tool used to analyze and represent the tasks involved in completing a project, especially when activity durations are uncertain.

  • The other options are incorrect expansions of the acronym.

18. PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) analysis is based on

  1. Optimistic time, Pessimistic time and Most likely time

  2. Pessimistic time, Optional time, Maximum time

  3. Optimistic time, Efficient time, Most likely time

  4. Minimax time, Optimistic time and harmonic time

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Optimistic time, Pessimistic time and Most likely time

Explanation:

  • PERT analysis is based on three time estimates for each activity: optimistic time (shortest possible time), pessimistic time (longest possible time), and most likely time (most probable time).

  • These estimates are used to calculate the expected duration of activities and the overall project.

  • The other options do not correctly describe the time estimates used in PERT.

19. Who introduced the bar charts?

  1. Williams henry

  2. Henry Gantt

  3. Jane Gantt

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Henry Gantt

Explanation:

  • Henry Gantt, an American mechanical engineer, introduced the Gantt chart, which is a type of bar chart used in project management.

  • Gantt charts are widely used to visualize project schedules and track progress.

  • Williams Henry and Jane Gantt are not associated with the invention of bar charts.

20. The full form of CPM is

  1. Critical Path Method

  2. Control Path Method

  3. Critical Plan Management

  4. Control Path Management

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Critical Path Method

Explanation:

  • CPM stands for Critical Path Method, a project management technique used to plan and control projects.

  • It identifies the critical path, which is the sequence of tasks that determines the minimum project duration.

  • The other options are incorrect expansions of the acronym.

21. In bar charts, which color is used to show the actual progress?

  1. Red

  2. Yellow

  3. Blue

  4. Green

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. Green

Explanation:

  • In bar charts, green is commonly used to represent actual progress.

  • This color is chosen because it is easily distinguishable and often associated with positive progress.

  • Red, yellow, and blue are typically used for other purposes, such as highlighting delays or planned tasks.

22. Which of the following is used to represent activity in a network diagram?

  1. Circles

  2. Squares

  3. Arrows

  4. Any of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Arrows

Explanation:

  • In network diagrams, such as those used in PERT or CPM, activities are represented by arrows.

  • The arrows indicate the sequence and dependencies between tasks.

  • Circles or squares are typically used to represent events or nodes, not activities.

23. Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?

  1. PERT

  2. CPM

  3. CMM

  4. Both PERT and CPM

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. Both PERT and CPM

Explanation:

  • Both PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) and CPM (Critical Path Method) are project scheduling methods that can be applied to software development.

  • These methods help in planning, scheduling, and controlling software projects by identifying task dependencies and critical paths.

  • CMM (Capability Maturity Model) is a framework for process improvement, not a scheduling method.

24. A horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar is called

  1. Milestone

  2. Goal

  3. Gantt Chart

  4. PERT Chart

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Gantt Chart

Explanation:

  • A Gantt chart is a horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar.

  • It is widely used in project management to visualize the timeline and progress of tasks.

  • Milestones, goals, and PERT charts serve different purposes and do not represent tasks against a calendar in the same way.

25. The statistical tool that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between those tasks is known as

  1. Milestone

  2. Goal

  3. Gantt Chart

  4. PERT Chart

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. PERT Chart

Explanation:

  • A PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) chart is a statistical tool that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between those tasks.

  • It is used to analyze and represent the tasks involved in completing a project, especially when activity durations are uncertain.

  • Gantt charts, milestones, and goals do not depict task relationships in the same way.

26. Which of the following are the process of project planning?

  1. Define the project

  2. Develop a project Plan

  3. Identify and acquire resources

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • Project planning involves defining the project, developing a project plan, and identifying and acquiring resources.

  • These steps ensure that the project is well-organized and that all necessary resources are available for execution.

  • All the options are essential components of project planning.

27. Classification of projects on the basis of as matrix, functional or projectized comes under

  1. Organizational structure

  2. Phase of development

  3. Purpose

  4. All of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Organizational structure

Explanation:

  • Projects can be classified based on organizational structure, such as matrix, functional, or projectized structures.

  • This classification determines how resources are allocated and how the project is managed within the organization.

  • Phase of development and purpose are not the basis for this classification.

28. Which of the following focus on day-to-day business operations and are designed to improve efficiency and productivity.

  1. Operational projects

  2. Tactical projects

  3. Strategic projects

  4. Portfolio projects

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Operational projects

Explanation:

  • Operational projects focus on day-to-day business operations and are designed to improve efficiency and productivity.

  • These projects are typically short-term and aim to optimize existing processes.

  • Tactical, strategic, and portfolio projects have different focuses and objectives.

29. Which of the following address specific business needs and objectives, and are usually shorter-term in nature.

  1. Operational projects

  2. Tactical projects

  3. Strategic projects

  4. Portfolio projects

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Tactical projects

Explanation:

  • Tactical projects address specific business needs and objectives and are usually shorter-term in nature.

  • They are often used to implement strategies or achieve specific goals within a limited timeframe.

  • Operational, strategic, and portfolio projects have different scopes and durations.

30. Which of the following align with the overall goals and mission of the organization, and are usually longer-term in nature

  1. Operational projects

  2. Tactical projects

  3. Strategic projects

  4. Portfolio projects

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Strategic projects

Explanation:

  • Strategic projects align with the overall goals and mission of the organization and are usually longer-term in nature.

  • These projects are designed to achieve significant organizational objectives and often involve high-level decision-making.

  • Operational, tactical, and portfolio projects have different focuses and timeframes.

31. Which of the following are a collection of projects that are grouped together to achieve specific organizational objectives?

  1. Operational projects

  2. Tactical projects

  3. Strategic projects

  4. Portfolio projects

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. Portfolio projects

Explanation:

  • Portfolio projects are a collection of projects grouped together to achieve specific organizational objectives.

  • They are managed as a portfolio to ensure alignment with the organization’s strategic goals.

  • Operational, tactical, and strategic projects are individual projects with different scopes and objectives.

32. Which of the following is true about Resource leveling and smoothing?

  1. Are techniques used in project management to ensure that resources are used efficiently and effectively throughout the duration of a project

  2. Resource leveling involves adjusting the schedule of a project to ensure that resources are not over-allocated at any point in time

  3. Resource smoothing involves making small adjustments to the schedule of a project to ensure that resources are used in a more even and consistent way over time

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • Resource leveling and smoothing are techniques used in project management to optimize resource allocation.

  • Resource leveling adjusts the project schedule to prevent resource over-allocation, while resource smoothing ensures consistent resource usage over time.

  • All the statements about resource leveling and smoothing are true.

33. Which of the following are methods for resource leveling?

  1. Manual Levelling

  2. Software based leveling

  3. Heuristic leveling

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • Resource leveling can be done using manual methods, software-based tools, or heuristic approaches.

  • These methods help project managers adjust schedules and allocate resources efficiently.

  • All the options are valid methods for resource leveling.

34. Heuristic leveling means

  1. Using a set of rules or guidelines to adjust the schedule of a project

  2. Using specialized software to automatically adjust the schedule of a project

  3. Manually adjusting the schedule of a project

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Using a set of rules or guidelines to adjust the schedule of a project

Explanation:

  • Heuristic leveling involves using a set of rules or guidelines to adjust the project schedule and allocate resources.

  • It is a practical approach that relies on experience and judgment rather than automated tools.

  • The other options describe manual or software-based leveling, not heuristic leveling.

35. Manual leveling means

  1. Using a set of rules or guidelines to adjust the schedule of a project

  2. Using specialized software to automatically adjust the schedule of a project

  3. Manually adjusting the schedule of a project

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Manually adjusting the schedule of a project

Explanation:

  • Manual leveling involves manually adjusting the project schedule to allocate resources efficiently.

  • This method requires direct intervention by the project manager and is often used for smaller projects.

  • The other options describe heuristic or software-based leveling, not manual leveling.

36. Software based leveling means

  1. Using a set of rules or guidelines to adjust the schedule of a project

  2. Using specialized software to automatically adjust the schedule of a project

  3. Manually adjusting the schedule of a project

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Using specialized software to automatically adjust the schedule of a project

Explanation:

  • Software-based leveling involves using specialized project management software to automatically adjust the project schedule and allocate resources.

  • This method is efficient for large and complex projects with many tasks and dependencies.

  • The other options describe manual or heuristic leveling, not software-based leveling.

37. Which of the following needs to be remembered during resource leveling?

  1. Identify critical resources and Understand resource constraints

  2. Analyze resource allocation and Prioritize tasks

  3. Adjust the schedule and Monitor progress

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • During resource leveling, it is important to identify critical resources, understand resource constraints, analyze resource allocation, prioritize tasks, adjust the schedule, and monitor progress.

  • These steps ensure that resources are used efficiently and that the project stays on track.

  • All the options are essential considerations during resource leveling.

38. Which of the following is true?

  1. Resource smoothing is a way to optimize the use of resources over the duration of the project

  2. Resource leveling focuses on ensuring that resources are used efficiently throughout the project

  3. Both techniques can be used together to improve project outcomes.

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • Resource smoothing optimizes resource usage over time, while resource leveling ensures efficient resource allocation throughout the project.

  • Both techniques can be used together to improve project outcomes by balancing resource usage and preventing over-allocation.

  • All the statements about resource smoothing and leveling are true.

39. Which of the following ensure that the project stays on track and achieves its objectives?

  1. Monitoring

  2. Evaluation

  3. Controlling

  4. All of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the above

Explanation:

  • Monitoring, evaluation, and controlling are essential processes in project management that ensure the project stays on track and achieves its objectives.

  • Monitoring tracks progress, evaluation assesses performance, and controlling makes necessary adjustments to keep the project aligned with its goals.

  • All the options are critical for successful project management.

40. Monitoring refers to

  1. Process of tracking the progress of the project and comparing it to the project plan

  2. Assessing the effectiveness of the project and determining whether it is achieving its intended objectives

  3. The process of making adjustments to the project plan as needed to ensure that the project stays on track.

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Process of tracking the progress of the project and comparing it to the project plan

Explanation:

  • Monitoring involves tracking the progress of the project and comparing it to the project plan to ensure it is on track.

  • It focuses on identifying deviations from the plan and taking corrective actions if necessary.

  • The other options describe evaluation and controlling, not monitoring.

41. Evaluation refers to

  1. Ongoing process of tracking the progress of the project and comparing it to the project plan

  2. Assessing the effectiveness of the project and determining whether it is achieving its intended objectives

  3. The process of making adjustments to the project plan as needed to ensure that the project stays on track.

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Assessing the effectiveness of the project and determining whether it is achieving its intended objectives

Explanation:

  • Evaluation involves assessing the effectiveness of the project and determining whether it is achieving its intended objectives.

  • It focuses on measuring outcomes and identifying areas for improvement.

  • The other options describe monitoring and controlling, not evaluation.

42. Controlling refers to

  1. Ongoing process of tracking the progress of the project and comparing it to the project plan

  2. Assessing the effectiveness of the project and determining whether it is achieving its intended objectives

  3. The process of making adjustments to the project plan as needed to ensure that the project stays on track.

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. The process of making adjustments to the project plan as needed to ensure that the project stays on track.

Explanation:

  • Controlling involves making adjustments to the project plan as needed to ensure that the project stays on track.

  • It focuses on implementing corrective actions to address deviations from the plan.

  • The other options describe monitoring and evaluation, not controlling.

43. Which of the following is not a project management goal?

  1. Keeping overall costs within budget

  2. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

  3. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team

  4. Avoiding customer complaints

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. Avoiding customer complaints

Explanation:

  • While avoiding customer complaints is important, it is not a primary project management goal.

  • The main goals of project management include keeping costs within budget, delivering on time, and maintaining a well-functioning team.

  • Avoiding complaints is more of a customer service objective.

44. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

  1. Specification delays

  2. Product competition

  3. Testing

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Testing

Explanation:

  • Testing is a standard part of the project lifecycle and is not considered a risk.

  • Risks in project management include specification delays, product competition, and other uncertainties that could impact the project.

  • Therefore, testing is not a risk but a necessary activity.

45. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

  1. Project Management

  2. Manager life cycle

  3. Project Management Life Cycle

  4. Project Management Cycle

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Project Management Life Cycle

Explanation:

  • The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as the Project Management Life Cycle.

  • It includes phases such as initiation, planning, execution, monitoring, and closure.

  • The other options are not standard terms for this process.

46. A 66.6% risk is considered as

  1. Low

  2. Nominal

  3. Moderate

  4. High

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. High

Explanation:

  • A 66.6% risk is considered high because it indicates a significant likelihood of the risk occurring.

  • Risks are typically categorized as low, moderate, or high based on their probability and impact.

  • A 66.6% probability falls into the high-risk category.

47. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

  1. Practitioners

  2. Project

  3. Customers

  4. Team Leader

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Project

Explanation:

  • Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for the project.

  • It involves defining quality standards, metrics, and processes to ensure the project meets its objectives.

  • The quality plan is focused on the project, not individual practitioners, customers, or team leaders.

48. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?

  1. Internship management

  2. Change management

  3. Version management

  4. Control Management

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Internship management

Explanation:

  • Configuration management in software systems involves activities like change management, version management, and control management.

  • Internship management is unrelated to configuration management and is not a part of it.

  • Therefore, internship management is the incorrect activity in this context.

49. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

  1. Process introduction

  2. Process analysis

  3. De-process

  4. Process distribution

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Process analysis

Explanation:

  • Process improvement involves analyzing existing processes to identify areas for improvement.

  • Process analysis is a key sub-process of process improvement, where current processes are evaluated and optimized.

  • The other options, such as process introduction or de-process, are not standard sub-processes of process improvement.

50. Which of the following are the components of risk management?

  1. Risk Assessment

  2. Risk Control

  3. Risk Ranking

  4. All of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the above

Explanation:

  • Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and controlling risks to minimize their impact on a project.

  • Risk assessment, risk control, and risk ranking are all essential components of risk management.

  • Therefore, all the options are correct.

51. Which of the following is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards achieving the goals of a project?

  1. Project

  2. Process

  3. Project Management

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Project

Explanation:

  • A project is defined as a set of activities that are interconnected and organized in a specific order to achieve a particular goal.

  • It is temporary in nature and has a defined beginning and end.

  • The other options, such as process and project management, are broader concepts that include multiple projects or ongoing activities.

52. Risk mitigation can be done through a variety of strategies like

  1. Implementing controls and transferring risk

  2. Accepting risk and avoiding risk

  3. All of the Above

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • Risk mitigation involves strategies like implementing controls, transferring risk, accepting risk, and avoiding risk.

  • These strategies help reduce the likelihood or impact of potential risks.

  • Therefore, all the options are valid risk mitigation strategies.

53. Which of the following is correct?

  1. Risk mitigation is an ongoing process and should be regularly reviewed and updated as the project progresses

  2. Risk mitigation is the process of reducing the likelihood or impact of a potential risk

  3. Project risk analysis is the process of identifying, assessing, and prioritizing potential risks to a project's success

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • Risk mitigation is an ongoing process that involves reducing the likelihood or impact of risks.

  • Project risk analysis involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks.

  • All the statements about risk mitigation and risk analysis are correct.

54. What are the steps that can be taken when deciding to accept a risk?

  1. Identify and assess the risk

  2. Prioritize the risk and develop a response plan

  3. Communicate the decision and monitor the risk

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • When deciding to accept a risk, the steps include identifying and assessing the risk, prioritizing it, developing a response plan, communicating the decision, and monitoring the risk.

  • These steps ensure that the risk is managed effectively even if it is accepted.

  • Therefore, all the options are correct.

55. Quantitative analysis involves

  1. Measurement of uncertainty in cost and time estimates

  2. Probabilistic combination of individual uncertainties

  3. Both of the Above

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Both of the Above

Explanation:

  • Quantitative analysis in project management involves measuring uncertainty in cost and time estimates.

  • It also includes the probabilistic combination of individual uncertainties to assess overall project risk.

  • Therefore, both options are correct.

56. Normally, who is responsible for Risk Management?

  1. Project Team

  2. Developer

  3. Production Team

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Project Team

Explanation:

  • Risk management is typically the responsibility of the project team, which includes the project manager and other stakeholders.

  • The project team identifies, assesses, and mitigates risks throughout the project lifecycle.

  • Developers and production teams may contribute but are not solely responsible for risk management.

57. What is the full form of RE?

  1. Risk Expense

  2. Risk Exposure

  3. Risk Evaluation

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Risk Exposure

Explanation:

  • RE stands for Risk Exposure, which is a measure of the potential impact of a risk on a project.

  • It is calculated as the product of the probability of the risk occurring and its potential impact.

  • The other options are incorrect expansions of the acronym.

58. Risk Exposure (RE)

  1. RE = Probability * Impact

  2. RE = 0.1 * Probability - Impact

  3. RE = Probability / Impact

  4. RE = Impact

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. RE = Probability * Impact

Explanation:

  • Risk Exposure (RE) is calculated as the product of the probability of a risk occurring and its potential impact.

  • This formula helps quantify the potential effect of a risk on the project.

  • The other formulas are incorrect representations of risk exposure.

59. What is risk?

  1. Negative consequence that could occur

  2. Negative consequence that will occur

  3. Negative consequence that must occur

  4. Negative consequence that shall occur

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Negative consequence that could occur

Explanation:

  • Risk refers to the possibility of a negative consequence occurring in the future.

  • It is not certain but has the potential to impact the project if it materializes.

  • The other options imply certainty, which is not the nature of risk.

60. What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revises these when you learn more about the risk?

  1. Risk monitoring

  2. Risk planning

  3. Risk analysis

  4. Risk identification

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Risk monitoring

Explanation:

  • Risk monitoring involves continuously assessing risks and revising risk mitigation plans as new information becomes available.

  • It ensures that risks are managed effectively throughout the project lifecycle.

  • The other options, such as risk planning and risk analysis, are earlier stages in the risk management process.

61. The impact of the risk will be reduced by means of which strategy?

  1. Avoidance strategies

  2. Minimization strategies

  3. Contingency plans

  4. All of the mentioned

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the mentioned

Explanation:

  • The impact of risks can be reduced through avoidance strategies, minimization strategies, and contingency plans.

  • These strategies help mitigate the effects of risks on the project.

  • Therefore, all the options are correct.

62. Which of the following is not a risk management activity?

  1. Risk Assessment

  2. Risk Generation

  3. Risk Control

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Risk Generation

Explanation:

  • Risk management activities include risk assessment, risk control, and risk monitoring.

  • Risk generation is not a standard activity in risk management; risks are identified, not generated.

  • Therefore, risk generation is the incorrect option.

63. ______ is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?

  1. Risk identification

  2. Performance risk

  3. Support risk

  4. Risk projection

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Risk identification

Explanation:

  • Risk identification is the process of systematically identifying potential threats to the project plan.

  • It is the first step in risk management and helps in preparing for potential risks.

  • The other options, such as performance risk and support risk, are types of risks, not processes.

64. The primary purpose of tender is to

  1. To select the best bid based on cost

  2. To select the best bid based on quality

  3. To select the best bid based on experience

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • The primary purpose of a tender is to select the best bid based on cost, quality, and experience.

  • These factors ensure that the selected bidder is capable of delivering the project successfully.

  • Therefore, all the options are correct.

65. The process of Tender in Nepal is governed by

  1. Public Procurement Act, 2062

  2. Public Procurement Act, 2063

  3. Public Procurement Act, 2064

  4. Public Procurement Act, 2065

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Public Procurement Act, 2063

Explanation:

  • The tender process in Nepal is governed by the Public Procurement Act, 2063.

  • This act provides the legal framework for procurement processes in Nepal.

  • The other options refer to incorrect years.

66. The tender Process in Nepal typically follows

  1. Invitation to Tender, Bid Submission, Evaluation of Bids, Award of Contract and Implementation of project

  2. Invitation to Tender, Evaluation of Bids, Bid Submission, Award of Contract and Implementation of project

  3. Invitation to Tender, Bid Submission, Award of Contract Evaluation of Bids, and Implementation of project

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Invitation to Tender, Bid Submission, Evaluation of Bids, Award of Contract and Implementation of project

Explanation:

  • The tender process in Nepal typically follows the sequence: Invitation to Tender, Bid Submission, Evaluation of Bids, Award of Contract, and Implementation of the project.

  • This sequence ensures a fair and transparent procurement process.

  • The other options do not follow the correct sequence.

67. Types of Bid that are commonly used in Nepal are

  1. Open Bid and Limited Bid

  2. Single Source bid

  3. Two stage bid

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • In Nepal, common types of bids include Open Bid, Limited Bid, Single Source Bid, and Two-Stage Bid.

  • These bidding methods are used depending on the nature and requirements of the project.

  • Therefore, all the options are correct.

68. Which of the following office monitors the procurement process and takes necessary action to prevent any malpractice, corruption, or irregularities in the procurement process?

  1. FCGO

  2. PPMO

  3. PPPO

  4. None of these

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. PPMO

Explanation:

  • The Public Procurement Monitoring Office (PPMO) in Nepal monitors the procurement process to prevent malpractice, corruption, or irregularities.

  • It ensures that procurement activities are conducted transparently and efficiently.

  • The other options are not relevant to procurement monitoring.

69. In which case international level bidding is applicable in Nepal?

  1. Where the goods or construction works as requisitioned by a Public Entity are not available under competitive price from more than one construction entrepreneur or supplier within the State of Nepal

  2. Where no bid was submitted in response to invitation to national level bidding for the procurement

  3. Where under an agreement entered into with a donor party, foreign goods or construction works have to be procured from foreign assistance source

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • International level bidding in Nepal is applicable in cases where goods or construction works are not available at competitive prices domestically, no bids are received in national-level bidding, or foreign assistance requires procurement from international sources.

  • Therefore, all the options are correct.

70. A Public Entity should prepare a cost estimate of any procurement

  1. Up to twenty five thousand rupees

  2. Above twenty five thousand rupees

  3. Both of the Above

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Above twenty five thousand rupees

Explanation:

  • A Public Entity in Nepal is required to prepare a cost estimate for any procurement above twenty-five thousand rupees.

  • This ensures transparency and proper planning in the procurement process.

  • The other options are incorrect.

71. The full form of EOI is

  1. Expression of Interest

  2. Expression of Information

  3. Eligibility of Information

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Expression of Interest

Explanation:

  • EOI stands for Expression of Interest, which is a document submitted by potential bidders to indicate their interest in a project.

  • It is often used in the initial stages of procurement to shortlist qualified bidders.

  • The other options are incorrect expansions of the acronym.

72. The common criteria that may include in EOI are

  1. Eligibility and Experience

  2. Financial Capability and Technical Capability

  3. Mandatory documents to be submitted and the time frame for EOI submission

  4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

  • The common criteria for an Expression of Interest (EOI) include eligibility, experience, financial capability, technical capability, mandatory documents, and the time frame for submission.

  • These criteria help in shortlisting qualified bidders for the procurement process.

  • Therefore, all the options are correct.

73. A Public Entity in procuring goods by selecting any method have to procure Nepali goods even if the price of the goods produced in Nepal is higher by ......percent than the foreign goods

  1. Upto 5 percent

  2. Upto 10 percent

  3. Upto 20 percent

  4. Upto 25 percent

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Upto 10 percent

Explanation:

  • A Public Entity in Nepal is required to procure Nepali goods even if the price is up to 10 percent higher than foreign goods.

  • This policy supports local industries and promotes domestic production.

  • The other options are incorrect.

74. To procure a consultancy service valuing more than......a Public Entity shall have to invite a expression of interest by publishing a notice

  1. One Million

  2. Two Million

  3. Three Million

  4. Four Million

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. One Million

Explanation:

  • For consultancy services valuing more than one million rupees, a Public Entity in Nepal must invite an Expression of Interest (EOI) by publishing a notice.

  • This ensures transparency and competition in the procurement process.

  • The other options are incorrect.

75. If a consultancy service of an amount valuing more than......requires to be procured, generally an international level expression of interest

  1. One Million

  2. Two Million

  3. Three Million

  4. Four Million

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Three Million

Explanation:

  • For consultancy services valuing more than three million rupees, an international level Expression of Interest (EOI) is generally required.

  • This ensures that qualified international consultants are considered for the project.

  • The other options are incorrect.

76. A Public Entity shall have to procure from the individual, firm, organization or company who have obtained

  1. Permanent Account Number

  2. Value Added Tax registration certificate from the Inland Revenue Office

  3. Both of the Above

  4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Both of the Above

Explanation:

  • A Public Entity is required to procure goods or services from individuals, firms, or organizations that have a Permanent Account Number (PAN) and a Value Added Tax (VAT) registration certificate.

  • These documents ensure that the entity is legally recognized and compliant with tax regulations.

  • Therefore, both options are correct.

77. A Public Entity shall have to make available pre-qualification documents to an interested individual, firm, organization or a company by charging, on the basis of the cost incurred to prepare such documents, from

  1. One thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees.

  2. Two thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees.

  3. Three thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees.

  4. Four thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees.

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. One thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees.

Explanation:

  • Public Entities are allowed to charge a fee for providing pre-qualification documents to interested parties.

  • The fee typically ranges from one thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees, depending on the cost incurred to prepare the documents.

  • This fee ensures that only serious bidders request the documents.

78. The cost estimate of a construction work of up to ...... shall be specified in the notice of invitation to bid.

  1. Five million Rupees

  2. Six million Rupees

  3. Seven million Rupees

  4. Eight million Rupees

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Six million Rupees

Explanation:

  • For construction works valued up to six million Rupees, the cost estimate must be specified in the notice of invitation to bid.

  • This ensures transparency and helps bidders understand the scope and budget of the project.

  • The other options are incorrect as they do not match the specified threshold.

79. A bidder shall have to submit along with a bid, a bid security of at least ...... of the quoted amount of his/her bid in cash or the bid security issued by a commercial bank equivalent to that amount

  1. 1.5 percent

  2. 2 percent

  3. 2.5 percent

  4. 3 percent

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. 2.5 percent

Explanation:

  • Bidders are required to submit a bid security, which is typically 2.5% of the quoted amount.

  • This security ensures that the bidder is serious and committed to the project.

  • The bid security can be submitted in cash or as a bank guarantee.

80. Bid Validity Period For a bid or proposal of consultancy service with cost estimate of up to one hundred million Rupees

  1. 90 days

  2. 100 days

  3. 110 days

  4. 120 days

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. 90 days

Explanation:

  • For consultancy services with a cost estimate of up to one hundred million Rupees, the bid validity period is 90 days.

  • This period ensures that the bid remains valid and binding for the specified duration.

  • The other options are incorrect as they do not match the standard bid validity period.

81. Bid Validity Period for a bid or proposal of a consultancy service with cost estimate whatsoever above one hundred million Rupee

  1. 90 days

  2. 100 days

  3. 110 days

  4. 120 days

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. 120 days

Explanation:

  • For consultancy services with a cost estimate above one hundred million Rupees, the bid validity period is 120 days.

  • This longer period is necessary due to the higher value and complexity of such projects.

  • The other options are incorrect as they do not match the standard bid validity period for high-value projects.

82. Authority to Approve the Bid Up to ten million Rupees

  1. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class

  2. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class

  3. Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class

  4. Chief of Department

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class

Explanation:

  • For bids up to ten million Rupees, the authority to approve lies with the Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class.

  • This ensures that smaller projects are approved at an appropriate administrative level.

  • The other options are incorrect as they refer to higher authorities responsible for larger projects.

83. Authority to Approve the Bid Up to thirty million Rupees

  1. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class

  2. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class

  3. Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class

  4. Chief of Department

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class

Explanation:

  • For bids up to thirty million Rupees, the authority to approve lies with the Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class.

  • This ensures that mid-sized projects are approved at an appropriate administrative level.

  • The other options are incorrect as they refer to higher or lower authorities.

84. Authority to Approve the Bid Up to seventy million Rupees

  1. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class

  2. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class

  3. Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class

  4. Chief of Department

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class

Explanation:

  • For bids up to seventy million Rupees, the authority to approve lies with the Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class.

  • This ensures that larger projects are approved at an appropriate administrative level.

  • The other options are incorrect as they refer to lower authorities.

85. Authority to Approve the Bid more than seventy million Rupees

  1. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class

  2. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class

  3. Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class

  4. Chief of Department

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. Chief of Department

Explanation:

  • For bids exceeding seventy million Rupees, the authority to approve lies with the Chief of Department.

  • This ensures that very large projects are approved at the highest administrative level.

  • The other options are incorrect as they refer to lower authorities.

86. If a consultancy service of an amount valuing more than ...... requires to be procured, generally an international level expression of interest shall be invited.

  1. Ten million Rupees

  2. Twenty million Rupees

  3. Thirty million Rupees

  4. Forty million Rupees

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Thirty million Rupees

Explanation:

  • For consultancy services valued at more than thirty million Rupees, an international level expression of interest (EOI) is generally invited.

  • This ensures that the procurement process is competitive and attracts global expertise.

  • The other options are incorrect as they do not match the threshold for international EOI.

87. The number of consultants to be passed on EOI at least how many consultants must be short list for further invitation to proposal

  1. 2

  2. 3

  3. 4

  4. 5

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. 3

Explanation:

  • At least three consultants must be shortlisted from the Expression of Interest (EOI) for further invitation to submit proposals.

  • This ensures a competitive and fair selection process.

  • The other options are incorrect as they do not match the minimum requirement.

88. Provision Concerning Direct Procurement of Expendable or capital goods, or consultancy or other services or construction work valuing up to ...... may be directly procured

  1. One hundred fifty thousand Rupees

  2. One hundred Sixty thousand Rupees

  3. One hundred Seventy thousand Rupees

  4. One hundred Eighty thousand Rupees

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. One hundred fifty thousand Rupees

Explanation:

  • Expendable or capital goods, consultancy, or other services valued up to one hundred fifty thousand Rupees may be directly procured without a formal bidding process.

  • This provision simplifies procurement for low-value items.

  • The other options are incorrect as they do not match the specified threshold.

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