Short Questions (60*1=60 Marks)

1. Which type of contract is not a "cost plus" contract?

1. Cost plus fixed fee

2. Cost plus incentive fee

3. Cost and fixed assets

4. Cost plus percentage of cost

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Cost and fixed assets

Explanation:

A "cost plus" contract is one where the buyer agrees to pay the cost of the project plus an additional fee or incentive. The "Cost and fixed assets" contract does not follow this structure, as it involves fixed assets rather than a variable cost basis.

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2. In which year was the first expert system developed?

1. 1960

2. 1965

3. 1970

4. 1975

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. 1965

Explanation:

The first expert system, called DENDRAL, was developed in 1965.

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3. What is the correct symbol for first angle projection?

1. ⊥

2. ∠

3. ⊿

4. ⊤

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. ⊥

Explanation:

The symbol ⊥ represents first angle projection in engineering drawings.

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4. What is another name for a simple SR flip-flop?

1. A monostable multivibrator

2. A bistable multivibrator

3. An astable multivibrator

4. A Schmitt trigger

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. A bistable multivibrator

Explanation:

A simple SR flip-flop is also known as a bistable multivibrator because it has two stable states.

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5. What is an alternative name for pipelining?

1. Assembly line operation

2. Parallel processing

3. Sequential execution

4. Batch processing

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Assembly line operation

Explanation:

Pipelining is often referred to as assembly line operation because tasks are divided into stages and processed in parallel, similar to an assembly line.

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6. How many interrupts are there in the 8085 microprocessor?

1. 5

2. 8

3. 10

4. 13

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. 13

Explanation:

The 8085 microprocessor has 13 interrupts, including both maskable and non-maskable interrupts.

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7. Which of the following is not a non-maskable interrupt?

1. TRAP

2. RST 7.5

3. RST 6.5

4. RST 5.5

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. TRAP

Explanation:

TRAP is a non-maskable interrupt, while RST 7.5, RST 6.5, and RST 5.5 are maskable interrupts.

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8. What is the relationship between terminal voltage and emf?

1. Terminal voltage is equal to emf

2. Terminal voltage is greater than emf

3. Terminal voltage is less than emf

4. There is no relationship between terminal voltage and emf

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Terminal voltage is less than emf

Explanation:

Terminal voltage is less than emf due to the voltage drop caused by internal resistance.

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9. If a delta connection has 3 ohms resistance, what is the equivalent resistance in star connection?

1. 1 ohm

2. 3 ohms

3. 9 ohms

4. 27 ohms

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. 1 ohm

Explanation:

The equivalent resistance in a star connection is given by dividing the delta resistance by 3. Therefore, $( R_{star} = \frac{R_{delta}}{3} = \frac{3}{3} = 1 \text{ ohm} )$.

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10. What type of learning algorithm is Naive Bayes?

1. Unsupervised

2. Supervised

3. Reinforcement

4. Semi-supervised

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Supervised

Explanation:

Naive Bayes is a supervised learning algorithm that uses labeled data for classification tasks.

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11. What are the input and output types for a 4:16 code converter decoder?

1. Input is binary and output is decimal

2. Input is binary and output is hexadecimal

3. Input is hexadecimal and output is binary

4. Input is decimal and output is binary

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Input is binary and output is hexadecimal

Explanation:

A 4:16 code converter decoder takes a 4-bit binary input and produces a 16-line hexadecimal output.

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12. Which logic gate is the building block for an encoder?

1. AND

2. OR

3. NOT

4. XOR

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. OR

Explanation:

The OR gate is a fundamental component in the design of encoders, which output a binary code corresponding to the active input.

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13. Given the following code:

int *p, u; float *y, x;

Which of the following is the correct next line of code?

1. p = &u

2. p = u

3. y = &x

4. y = x

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. p = &u

Explanation:

Since p is a pointer to an integer, it should be assigned the address of an integer variable using &u.

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14. Which of the following is not a format specifier in C?

1. %d

2. %f

3. %s

4. %t

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. %t

Explanation:

%t is not a valid format specifier in C. Common format specifiers include %d for integers, %f for floating-point numbers, and %s for strings.

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15. In project management, what comes after the project idea in product design?

1. Development

2. Testing

3. Implementation

4. Design

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Design

Explanation:

After the project idea is formed, the next step is the design phase where the product's specifications and features are determined.

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16. Which of the following is a stable filter?

1. RC filter

2. LC filter

3. Crystal oscillator

4. Op-amp filter

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Crystal oscillator

Explanation:

A crystal oscillator is a stable filter as it uses the mechanical resonance of a vibrating crystal to create a stable frequency.

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17. How is frequency defined in AC?

1. Number of waves per second

2. Time period of one wave

3. Amplitude of the wave

4. Phase difference between voltage and current

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Number of waves per second

Explanation:

Frequency is the number of cycles or waves that pass a point in one second, measured in Hertz (Hz).

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18. Who appoints the auditor of NEC?

1. NEC Executives

2. Shareholders

3. CEO

4. Government

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. NEC Executives

Explanation:

The executives of NEC typically appoint the auditor to ensure proper audit processes within the organization.

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19. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission?

1. Data Link layer

2. Network layer

3. Physical layer

4. Transport layer

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Physical layer

Explanation:

The physical layer is responsible for the actual transmission of raw binary data over a physical medium.

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20. What type of grammar is a PDA (Pushdown Automaton) associated with?

1. Type 0 grammar

2. Type 1 grammar

3. Type 2 grammar

4. Type 3 grammar

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Type 2 grammar

Explanation:

A Pushdown Automaton (PDA) is associated with Type 2 grammar, which corresponds to context-free languages.

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21. What is a key characteristic of a Universal Turing Machine?

1. Programmable

2. Fixed function

3. Analog

4. Quantum

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Programmable

Explanation:

A Universal Turing Machine is programmable, meaning it can simulate any other Turing machine by reading and executing an appropriate program.

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22. Which test is used to determine machine intelligence?

1. Turing test

2. IQ test

3. A/B test

4. Unit test

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Turing test

Explanation:

The Turing test is used to determine whether a machine exhibits intelligent behavior indistinguishable from that of a human.

23. What component primarily uses BIOS?

1. CPU

2. RAM

3. Hard Drive

4. Operating system

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Operating system

Explanation:

The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is primarily used to initialize the operating system during the boot process.

24. Real-time operation depends on what two factors?

1. Speed and accuracy

2. Time and memory

3. Input and output

4. Hardware and software

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Speed and accuracy

Explanation:

Real-time operation requires both speed to process data quickly and accuracy to ensure correct outcomes within time constraints.

25. What does distance vector routing depend on?

1. Hop counts

2. Bandwidth

3. Latency

4. IP addresses

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Hop counts

Explanation:

Distance vector routing relies on hop counts (the number of routers a packet must pass through) to determine the best path.

26. What causes propagation delay?

1. Network congestion

2. Router processing time

3. Distance between routers

4. Packet size

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Distance between routers

Explanation:

Propagation delay is primarily caused by the time it takes for a signal to travel the physical distance between routers.

27. What is the maximum number of nodes a binary tree can have based on height ( h )?

1. $2^h$

2. $2^h - 1$

3. $2^{(h+1)} - 1$

4. $2^{(h-1)}$

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. $2^h - 1$

Explanation:

A binary tree with height $h$ can have a maximum of $2^h - 1$ nodes, where the height is the number of edges from the root to the deepest leaf.

28. What is a requirement of a binary tree?

1. Must be balanced

2. Must be complete

3. Must be sorted

4. Must have at least one child for each node

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Must be sorted

Explanation:

A binary search tree (BST) must be sorted such that the left subtree contains nodes with values less than the root, and the right subtree contains nodes with values greater than the root.

29. Which transformation resizes an object?

1. Translation

2. Rotation

3. Scaling

4. Shearing

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Scaling

Explanation:

Scaling is the transformation that resizes an object by changing its dimensions.

30. Which process runs after the Kernel bootstrap is executed?

1. /sbin/init

2. /etc/init.d

3. /boot/grub

4. /proc/kmsg

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. /etc/init.d

Explanation:

After the Kernel bootstrap is executed, the /etc/init.d script runs to initialize system services.

31. What is an encrypted message called?

1. Plaintext

2. Ciphertext

3. Keytext

4. Hashtext

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Ciphertext

Explanation:

An encrypted message is called ciphertext, which is generated from plaintext using an encryption algorithm and a key.

32. What is the function of the application layer in networking?

1. Data transmission

2. Routing

3. User to system application

4. Error checking

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. User to system application

Explanation:

The application layer enables user-to-system interactions, providing services like email, file transfer, and web browsing.

33. On which plane does 2D rotation occur?

1. 3D plane

2. 2D plane

3. XY plane

4. XZ plane

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. 2D plane

Explanation:

2D rotation occurs on a 2D plane, typically around a point or the origin.

34. Which of the following statements about functions and templates is incorrect?

1. Overloaded functions can be redefined

2. Templates can be redefined

3. Macros are efficient than templates

4. All statements are correct

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. All statements are correct

Explanation:

All the listed statements are correct regarding functions, templates, and macros.

35. Which interrupt has the highest priority in 8086?

1. INTR

2. NMI (Non-Maskable Interrupt)

3. INT 0

4. INT 3

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. NMI (Non-Maskable Interrupt)

Explanation:

The Non-Maskable Interrupt (NMI) has the highest priority in the 8086 microprocessor, as it cannot be disabled or masked by software.

36. How many 16-bit registers are there in the 8085 microprocessor?

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. 2

Explanation:

The 8085 microprocessor has two 16-bit registers: the stack pointer (SP) and the program counter (PC).

37. What is the purpose of a Wait-for graph?

1. Process scheduling

2. Memory allocation

3. Deadlock detection

4. File management

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Deadlock detection

Explanation:

A Wait-for graph is used to detect deadlocks in a system by representing processes and the resources they are waiting for.

38. What is the primary purpose of a special processor?

1. General computation

2. Special function

3. Data storage

4. Network communication

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Special function

Explanation:

Special processors are designed for specific tasks, such as signal processing, graphics rendering, or cryptographic operations.

39. In networking, what term is used to describe excessive load?

1. Overload

2. Congestion

3. Saturation

4. Bottleneck

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Congestion

Explanation:

Congestion occurs in networking when there is excessive load, causing delays and reduced performance.

40. What is a key feature of a bus in computer architecture?

1. Data transfer

2. Priority handling

3. Memory access

4. Interrupt handling

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Priority handling

Explanation:

A key feature of a bus is its ability to handle data transfer priorities between various components in a computer system.

41. Which of the following is not a combinational circuit?

1. Multiplexer

2. Decoder

3. Adder

4. Counter

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Counter

Explanation:

A counter is a sequential circuit, as its output depends on both the current input and previous state.

42. How many categories of memory storage are there?

1. 2

2. 3

3. 1

4. 5

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. 2

Explanation:

Memory storage is typically categorized into primary (volatile) and secondary (non-volatile) storage.

43. What is the term for multiple processes executing concurrently in a single-user system?

1. Multiprocessing

2. Multitasking

3. Multithreading

4. Time-sharing

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Multitasking

Explanation:

Multitasking allows multiple processes to execute concurrently by sharing CPU time in a single-user system.

44. What configuration option does the PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) system have?

1. Encryption

2. Compression

3. Authentication

4. Multiplexing

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Authentication

Explanation:

PPP supports authentication options, such as PAP and CHAP, to verify the identity of the connecting devices.

45. How many articles are in the NEC code of conduct?

1. 5

2. 8

3. 10

4. 12

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. 8

Explanation:

The NEC code of conduct consists of 8 articles, outlining ethical principles and professional standards.

46. What is a key function of CMOS technology?

1. High speed

2. Low power consumption

3. High storage capacity

4. High heat dissipation

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Low power consumption

Explanation:

CMOS technology is known for its low power consumption, making it suitable for battery-operated devices.

47. What is single-level inheritance?

1. A class inherited from multiple base classes

2. A class inherited from a base class

3. A base class inherited from multiple derived classes

4. A class that cannot be inherited

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. A class inherited from a base class

Explanation:

Single-level inheritance occurs when a derived class inherits from a single base class.

48. What software model represents behavior and interaction?

1. Class diagram

2. Sequence diagram

3. Use case

4. Activity diagram

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Use case

Explanation:

A use case model describes the behavior and interaction between users and the system.

49. In which software development model is risk management prominently featured?

1. Agile

2. Iterative

3. Spiral

4. Waterfall

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Spiral

Explanation:

The spiral model emphasizes risk management at each phase of software development.

50. Which software development model is difficult to maintain?

1. Agile

2. Iterative

3. Spiral

4. Waterfall

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Waterfall

Explanation:

The waterfall model is difficult to maintain because it lacks flexibility, making changes late in the process costly.

51. What type of image format uses a map of bits?

1. Vector

2. Bitmap

3. JPEG

4. GIF

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Bitmap

Explanation:

Bitmap images use a map of bits (pixels) to represent images.

52. What technique is used to check if a language is regular?

1. Turing test

2. Pumping lemma

3. Halting problem

4. Church-Turing thesis

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Pumping lemma

Explanation:

The pumping lemma is used to prove that certain languages are not regular by demonstrating that they cannot be "pumped."

53. Which C function is used to find the current position in a file?

1. fseek()

2. ftell()

3. fgetpos()

4. rewind()

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. ftell()

Explanation:

The ftell() function returns the current position of the file pointer in a file.

54. Which SQL command removes content without altering the table structure?

1. DROP

2. TRUNCATE

3. DELETE

4. REMOVE

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. DELETE

Explanation:

The DELETE command removes rows from a table without changing its structure.

55. What does software quality management consist of?

1. SQA and SQC

2. SQA and SQM

3. SQM and SQC

4. SQP and SQA

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. SQA and SQM

Explanation:

Software Quality Management consists of Software Quality Assurance (SQA) and Software Quality Management (SQM).

56. In a project network diagram, what is a dummy activity?

1. Critical activity

2. Non-critical activity

3. Theoretical or logical

4. Resource-intensive activity

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Theoretical or logical

Explanation:

A dummy activity is used in project network diagrams to represent logical relationships but does not consume time or resources.

57. What is a limitation of Artificial Neural Networks?

1. Cannot learn from data

2. Cannot handle complex problems

3. Cannot explain results

4. Cannot be trained

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Cannot explain results

Explanation:

Artificial Neural Networks have limited interpretability, making it difficult to explain how they reach specific conclusions.

58. Which of the following is not a physical input device?

1. Keyboard

2. Mouse

3. Touch panel

4. Microphone

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Touch panel

Explanation:

A touch panel is an output device that displays content, whereas a physical input device directly sends data to a computer.

59. Which of the following is not a property of knowledge representation?

1. Representational adequacy

2. Inferential adequacy

3. Inferential efficiency

4. Representational verification

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Representational verification

Explanation:

Representational verification is not a property of knowledge representation. The key properties are adequacy and efficiency.

60. Which of the following is considered an Essential Implicant in Boolean algebra?

1. Prime implicant

2. Essential prime implicant

3. Complement

Show me the answer

Answer:

1. Essential prime implicant

Explanation:

An Essential Prime Implicant is a prime implicant that covers an output for which no other prime implicant can account.