MCQs On Project Mangement

1. Which of the following is not a project management goal?

1. Keeping overall costs within budget

2. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

3. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team

4. Avoiding customer complaints

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. Avoiding customer complaints

Explanation:

• The primary goals of project management include keeping costs within budget, delivering projects on time, and maintaining a well-functioning team.

• Avoiding customer complaints is not a direct goal of project management, although it may be a byproduct of successful project management.

• The other options are core objectives of project management.

2. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

1. Specification delays

2. Product competition

3. Testing

4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Testing

Explanation:

• Risks in project management typically include delays, competition, and resource constraints.

• Testing is a standard part of the project lifecycle and is not considered a risk.

• The other options are common risks that project managers must address.

3. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

1. Project Management

2. Manager life cycle

3. Project Management Life Cycle

4. Project Management Cycle

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Project Management Life Cycle

Explanation:

• The Project Management Life Cycle (PMLC) refers to the phases a project goes through from initiation to closure.

• It includes planning, execution, monitoring, and closing phases.

• The other options are not standard terms used to describe this process.

4. A 66.6% risk is considered as

1. Low

2. Nominal

3. Moderate

4. High

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. High

Explanation:

• A risk probability of 66.6% is considered high in project management.

• High-risk probabilities require significant attention and mitigation strategies.

• The other options describe lower levels of risk.

5. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

1. Practitioners

2. Project

3. Customers

4. Team Leader

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Project

Explanation:

• Quality planning involves creating a plan to ensure that the project meets its quality objectives.

• It focuses on the project's deliverables and processes, not on individual practitioners or customers.

• The other options are not the primary focus of quality planning.

6. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?

1. Internship management

2. Change management

3. Version management

4. Control Management

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Internship management

Explanation:

• Configuration management involves managing changes, versions, and control of software systems.

• Internship management is unrelated to configuration management and is not a standard activity in this context.

• The other options are core activities of configuration management.

7. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

1. Process introduction

2. Process analysis

3. De-process

4. Process distribution

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Process analysis

Explanation:

• Process improvement involves analyzing existing processes to identify areas for improvement.

• Process analysis is a key sub-process in this context.

• The other options are not standard sub-processes of process improvement.

8. Which of the following are the components of risk management?

1. Risk Assessment

2. Risk Control

3. Risk Ranking

4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

• Risk management includes risk assessment, control, and ranking.

• These components help identify, evaluate, and mitigate risks in a project.

• All the options are essential parts of risk management.

9. Which of the following is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards achieving the goals of a project?

1. Project

2. Process

3. Project Management

4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Project

Explanation:

• A project is a set of activities that are organized in a sequence to achieve specific goals.

• Process and project management are broader concepts that include managing and executing projects.

• The correct answer is "Project."

10. Risk mitigation can be done through a variety of strategies like

1. Implementing controls and transferring risk

2. Accepting risk and Avoiding risk

3. All of the Above

4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. All of the Above

Explanation:

• Risk mitigation strategies include implementing controls, transferring risk, accepting risk, and avoiding risk.

• These strategies help reduce the impact or likelihood of risks in a project.

• All the options are valid risk mitigation strategies.

11. Which of the following is correct?

1. Risk mitigation is an ongoing process and should be regularly reviewed and updated as the project progresses

2. Risk mitigation is the process of reducing the likelihood or impact of a potential risk

3. Project risk analysis is the process of identifying, assessing, and prioritizing potential risks to a project's success

4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

• Risk mitigation is indeed an ongoing process that requires regular review and updates.

• It involves reducing the likelihood or impact of risks.

• Project risk analysis includes identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks.

• All the statements are correct and interrelated.

12. What are the steps that can be taken when deciding to accept a risk?

1. Identify and assess the risk

2. Prioritize the risk and develop a response plan

3. Communicate the decision and monitor the risk

4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

• When deciding to accept a risk, the steps include identifying and assessing the risk, prioritizing it, developing a response plan, communicating the decision, and monitoring the risk.

• All these steps are essential for effective risk management.

• Therefore, all the options are correct.

13. Quantitative analysis involves

1. Measurement of uncertainty in cost and time estimates

2. Probabilistic combination of individual uncertainties

3. Both of the Above

4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Both of the Above

Explanation:

• Quantitative analysis in project management involves measuring uncertainties in cost and time estimates.

• It also includes combining individual uncertainties probabilistically to assess overall project risk.

• Both options are correct and describe key aspects of quantitative analysis.

14. Normally, who is responsible for Risk Management?

1. Project Team

2. Developer

3. Production Team

4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Project Team

Explanation:

• Risk management is typically the responsibility of the project team.

• The project team identifies, assesses, and mitigates risks throughout the project lifecycle.

• Developers and production teams may contribute, but the primary responsibility lies with the project team.

15. What is the full form of RE?

1. Risk Expense

2. Risk Exposure

3. Risk Evaluation

4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Risk Exposure

Explanation:

• RE stands for Risk Exposure, which is a measure of the potential impact of a risk on a project.

• It is calculated as the product of the probability of the risk occurring and its potential impact.

• The other options are not correct expansions of RE.

16. Risk Exposure (RE)

1. $RE = \text{Probability} \times \text{Impact}$

2. $RE = 0.1 \times \text{Probability} - \text{Impact}$

3. $RE = \frac{\text{Probability}}{\text{Impact}}$

4. $RE = \text{Impact}$

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. $RE = \text{Probability} \times \text{Impact}$

Explanation:

• Risk Exposure (RE) is calculated by multiplying the probability of a risk occurring by its potential impact.

• This formula helps quantify the potential effect of a risk on the project.

• The other options are incorrect representations of RE.

17. What is risk?

1. Negative consequence that could occur

2. Negative consequence that will occur

3. Negative consequence that must occur

4. Negative consequence that shall occur

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Negative consequence that could occur

Explanation:

• Risk refers to the possibility of a negative consequence occurring in the future.

• It is not certain that the consequence will occur, but there is a possibility.

• The other options imply certainty, which is not the nature of risk.

18. What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revises these when you learn more about the risk?

1. Risk monitoring

2. Risk planning

3. Risk analysis

4. Risk identification

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Risk monitoring

Explanation:

• Risk monitoring involves continuously assessing risks and updating mitigation plans as new information becomes available.

• It ensures that the project team remains aware of potential risks and can respond effectively.

• The other options are part of the risk management process but do not specifically involve ongoing assessment and revision.

19. The impact of the risk will be reduced by means of which strategy?

1. Avoidance strategies

2. Minimization strategies

3. Contingency plans

4. All of the mentioned

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the mentioned

Explanation:

• Risk impact can be reduced through avoidance strategies, minimization strategies, and contingency plans.

• Each strategy plays a role in mitigating the effects of risks on the project.

• Therefore, all the options are correct.

20. Which of the following is not a risk management activity?

1. Risk Assessment

2. Risk Generation

3. Risk Control

4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Risk Generation

Explanation:

• Risk management activities include risk assessment, control, and monitoring.

• Risk generation is not a standard activity in risk management; risks are identified, not generated.

• The other options are core activities of risk management.

21. ………is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?

1. Risk identification

2. Performance risk

3. Support risk

4. Risk projection

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Risk identification

Explanation:

• Risk identification is the process of systematically identifying potential threats to the project plan.

• It is the first step in the risk management process.

• The other options describe specific types of risks or risk-related activities.

22. The primary purpose of tender is to

1. To select the best bid based on cost

2. To select the best bid based on quality

3. To select the best bid based on experience

4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

• The primary purpose of a tender is to select the best bid based on cost, quality, and experience.

• These factors ensure that the selected bidder can deliver the project effectively.

• Therefore, all the options are correct.

23. The process of Tender in Nepal is governed by

1. Public Procurement Act, 2062

2. Public Procurement Act, 2063

3. Public Procurement Act, 2064

4. Public Procurement Act, 2065

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Public Procurement Act, 2063

Explanation:

• The tender process in Nepal is governed by the Public Procurement Act, 2063.

• This act outlines the procedures and regulations for public procurement.

• The other options are incorrect years for the act.

24. The tender Process in Nepal typically follows

1. Invitation to Tender, Bid Submission, Evaluation of Bids, Award of Contract and Implementation of project

2. Invitation to Tender, Evaluation of Bids, Bid Submission, Award of Contract and Implementation of project

3. Invitation to Tender, Bid Submission, Award of Contract Evaluation of Bids, and Implementation of project

4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Invitation to Tender, Bid Submission, Evaluation of Bids, Award of Contract and Implementation of project

Explanation:

• The tender process in Nepal follows a sequence of steps: invitation to tender, bid submission, evaluation of bids, award of contract, and project implementation.

• This sequence ensures a fair and transparent procurement process.

• The other options do not follow the correct sequence.

25. Types of Bid that are commonly used in Nepal are

1. Open Bid and Limited Bid

2. Single Source bid

3. Two stage bid

4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

• Common types of bids used in Nepal include open bids, limited bids, single-source bids, and two-stage bids.

• These bidding methods cater to different procurement needs and scenarios.

• Therefore, all the options are correct.

26. Which of the following office monitors the procurement process and takes necessary action to prevent any malpractice, corruption, or irregularities in the procurement process?

1. FCGO

2. PPMO

3. PPPO

4. None of these

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. PPMO

Explanation:

• The Public Procurement Monitoring Office (PPMO) is responsible for monitoring the procurement process in Nepal.

• It ensures that procurement activities are conducted transparently and without corruption.

• The other options are not relevant to procurement monitoring.

27. In which case international level bidding is applicable in Nepal?

1. Where the goods or construction works as requisitioned by a Public Entity are not available under competitive price from more than one construction entrepreneur or supplier within the State of Nepal

2. Where no bid was submitted in response to invitation to national level bidding for the procurement

3. Where under an agreement entered into with a donor party, foreign goods or construction works have to be procured from foreign assistance source

4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

• International level bidding in Nepal is applicable in cases where goods or services are not available domestically, no bids are received in national bidding, or foreign assistance is required.

• These scenarios justify the need for international bidding.

• Therefore, all the options are correct.

28. A Public Entity should prepare a cost estimate of any procurement

1. Up to twenty five thousand rupees

2. Above twenty five thousand rupees

3. Both of the Above

4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Above twenty five thousand rupees

Explanation:

• A Public Entity in Nepal is required to prepare a cost estimate for procurement above twenty-five thousand rupees.

• This ensures transparency and accountability in the procurement process.

• The other options are not correct thresholds for cost estimation.

29. The full form of EOI is

1. Expression of Interest

2. Expression of Information

3. Eligibility of Information

4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Expression of Interest

Explanation:

• EOI stands for Expression of Interest, which is a document submitted by potential bidders to indicate their interest in a project.

• It is commonly used in the procurement process to shortlist qualified bidders.

• The other options are incorrect expansions of EOI.

30. The common criteria that may include in EOI are

1. Eligibility and Experience

2. Financial Capability and Technical Capability

3. Mandatory documents to be submitted and the time frame for EOI submission

4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

• The criteria for an Expression of Interest (EOI) typically include eligibility, experience, financial capability, technical capability, mandatory documents, and submission timelines.

• These criteria help ensure that only qualified bidders are considered.

• Therefore, all the options are correct.

31. A Public Entity in procuring goods by selecting any method have to procure Nepali goods even if the price of the goods produced in Nepal is higher by ......percent than the foreign goods

1. Upto 5 percent

2. Upto 10 percent

3. Upto 20 percent

4. Upto 25 percent

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Upto 10 percent

Explanation:

• Public Entities in Nepal are required to prioritize Nepali goods even if they are up to 10% more expensive than foreign goods.

• This policy supports local industries and promotes economic growth.

• The other options are incorrect percentages.

32. To procure a consultancy service valuing more than......a Public Entity shall have to invite an expression of interest by publishing a notice

1. One Million

2. Two Million

3. Three Million

4. Four Million

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. One Million

Explanation:

• For consultancy services valued at more than one million rupees, a Public Entity must invite an Expression of Interest (EOI) by publishing a notice.

• This ensures transparency and competition in the procurement process.

• The other options are incorrect thresholds.

33. If a consultancy service of an amount valuing more than......requires to be procured, generally an international level expression of interest

1. One Million

2. Two Million

3. Three Million

4. Four Million

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Three Million

Explanation:

• For consultancy services valued at more than three million rupees, an international level Expression of Interest (EOI) is generally required.

• This ensures that the best expertise is available for high-value projects.

• The other options are incorrect thresholds.

34. A Public Entity shall have to procure from the individual, firm, organization or company who have obtained

1. Permanent Account Number

2. Value Added Tax registration certificate from the Inland Revenue Office

3. Both of the Above

4. None of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Both of the Above

Explanation:

• Public Entities in Nepal are required to procure goods and services from entities that have a Permanent Account Number (PAN) and a Value Added Tax (VAT) registration certificate.

• These requirements ensure compliance with tax regulations.

• Therefore, both options are correct.

35. A Public Entity shall have to make available pre-qualification documents to an interested individual, firm, organization or a company by charging, on the basis of the cost incurred to prepare such documents, from

1. One thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees

2. Two thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees

3. Three thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees

4. Four thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. One thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees

Explanation:

• Public Entities in Nepal charge between one thousand and fifteen thousand rupees for pre-qualification documents, based on the cost of preparation.

• This fee ensures that only serious bidders access the documents.

• The other options are incorrect fee ranges.

36. The cost estimate of a construction work of up to ......shall be specified in the notice of invitation to bid

1. Five million Rupees

2. Six million Rupees

3. Seven million Rupees

4. Eight million Rupees

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Six million Rupees

Explanation:

• For construction works valued up to six million rupees, the cost estimate must be specified in the notice of invitation to bid.

• This ensures transparency and helps bidders prepare accurate proposals.

• The other options are incorrect thresholds.

37. A bidder shall have to submit along with a bid, a bid security of at least ......of the quoted amount of his/her bid in cash or the bid security issued by a commercial bank equivalent to that amount

1. 1.5 percent

2. 2 percent

3. 2.5 percent

4. 3 percent

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. 2.5 percent

Explanation:

• Bidders in Nepal are required to submit a bid security of at least 2.5% of the quoted amount.

• This ensures that bidders are committed to their proposals.

• The other options are incorrect percentages.

38. Bid Validity Period For a bid or proposal of consultancy service with cost estimate of up to one hundred million Rupees

1. 90 days

2. 100 days

3. 110 days

4. 120 days

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. 90 days

Explanation:

• The bid validity period for consultancy services valued up to one hundred million rupees is 90 days.

• This ensures that bids remain

38. Bid Validity Period For a bid or proposal of consultancy service with cost estimate of up to one hundred million Rupees

1. 90 days

2. 100 days

3. 110 days

4. 120 days

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. 90 days

Explanation:

• The bid validity period for consultancy services with a cost estimate of up to one hundred million Rupees is typically 90 days.

• This ensures that the bid remains valid for a reasonable period while the evaluation process is completed.

• The other options are not standard for this cost estimate.

39. Bid Validity Period for a bid or proposal of a consultancy service with cost estimate whatsoever above one hundred million Rupee

1. 90 days

2. 100 days

3. 110 days

4. 120 days

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. 120 days

Explanation:

• For consultancy services with a cost estimate above one hundred million Rupees, the bid validity period is typically 120 days.

• This extended period allows for more complex evaluations and decision-making processes.

• The other options are not standard for this cost estimate.

40. Authority to Approve the Bid Up to ten million Rupees

1. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class

2. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class

3. Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class

4. Chief of Department

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class

Explanation:

• For bids up to ten million Rupees, the authority to approve lies with the Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class.

• This ensures that smaller bids are handled efficiently at the appropriate administrative level.

• The other options are not responsible for this level of approval.

41. Authority to Approve the Bid Up to thirty million Rupees

1. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class

2. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class

3. Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class

4. Chief of Department

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class

Explanation:

• For bids up to thirty million Rupees, the authority to approve lies with the Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class.

• This ensures that bids of this size are handled by a higher administrative level.

• The other options are not responsible for this level of approval.

42. Authority to Approve the Bid Up to seventy million Rupees

1. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class

2. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class

3. Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class

4. Chief of Department

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class

Explanation:

• For bids up to seventy million Rupees, the authority to approve lies with the Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class.

• This ensures that larger bids are handled by a senior administrative level.

• The other options are not responsible for this level of approval.

43. Authority to Approve the Bid more than seventy million Rupees

1. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class

2. Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class

3. Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class

4. Chief of Department

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. Chief of Department

Explanation:

• For bids exceeding seventy million Rupees, the authority to approve lies with the Chief of Department.

• This ensures that the largest bids are handled by the highest administrative level.

• The other options are not responsible for this level of approval.

44. If a consultancy service of an amount valuing more than ______ requires to be procured, generally an international level expression of interest shall be invited.

1. Ten million Rupees

2. Twenty million Rupees

3. Thirty million Rupees

4. Forty million Rupees

Show me the answer

Answer: 3. Thirty million Rupees

Explanation:

• For consultancy services valuing more than thirty million Rupees, an international level expression of interest is typically required.

• This ensures that the procurement process attracts global expertise and competition.

• The other options are not standard thresholds for international procurement.

45. The number of consultants to be passed on EOI at least how many consultants must be short list for further invitation to proposal

1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 5

Show me the answer

Answer: 2. 3

Explanation:

• At least three consultants must be shortlisted from the Expression of Interest (EOI) for further invitation to submit proposals.

• This ensures a competitive and fair selection process.

• The other options do not meet the minimum requirement.

46. Provision Concerning Direct Procurement of Expendable or capital goods, or consultancy or other services or construction work valuing up to ______ may be directly procured

1. One hundred fifty thousand Rupees

2. One hundred Sixty thousand Rupees

3. One hundred Seventy thousand Rupees

4. One hundred Eighty thousand Rupees

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. One hundred fifty thousand Rupees

Explanation:

• Direct procurement is allowed for goods, services, or construction work valuing up to one hundred fifty thousand Rupees.

• This simplifies the procurement process for smaller-value items.

• The other options exceed the threshold for direct procurement.

47. A Public Entity may procure a consultancy service by concluding which of the following contracts:

1. Lump Sum Contract

2. Time-Based Contract

3. Performance based fee paying contract

4. All of the Above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4. All of the Above

Explanation:

• Public entities can procure consultancy services through various contract types, including lump sum, time-based, and performance-based fee-paying contracts.

• This flexibility allows for tailored agreements based on the nature of the consultancy.

• All the options are valid contract types.

48. A Public Entity shall have to procure goods, services or a construction work valuing above ______ through a bid.

1. One million Rupees

2. Two million Rupees

3. Three million Rupees

4. Four million Rupees

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. One million Rupees

Explanation:

• For goods, services, or construction work valuing above one million Rupees, a public entity must use a bidding process.

• This ensures transparency and competition in procurement.

• The other options are not the standard threshold for mandatory bidding.

49. A Public Entity shall have to make available pre-qualification documents to an interested individual, firm, organization or a company by charging, on the basis of the cost incurred to prepare such documents, from ______

1. One thousand to Fifteen thousand Rupees

2. Two thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees

3. Three thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees

4. Four thousand to fifteen thousand rupees

Show me the answer

Answer: 1. One thousand to Fifteen thousand Rupees

Explanation:

• Public entities charge between one thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees for pre-qualification documents, based on the cost of preparation.

• This fee ensures that the documents are accessible while covering administrative costs.

• The other options are not the standard fee range.