Set 2 (Chaitra, 2080)

Short Questions (60*1=60 Marks)

1. The rock having tendency to split in a definite direction is called

1. Stratified

2. Unstratified

3. Foliated

4. All of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) Foliated

Explanation: Foliated rocks have a layered or banded appearance due to the parallel alignment of minerals, allowing them to split along definite planes. Stratified rocks are sedimentary rocks with distinct layers, but "foliated" specifically refers to metamorphic rocks with a tendency to split in a preferred direction.

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2. The red color obtained by the bricks is due to the presence of

1. Lime

2. Iron oxide

3. Manganese

4. Silica

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) Iron oxide

Explanation: The red color in bricks is primarily due to the presence of iron oxide $( Fe_2O_3 )$ in the clay. During firing, iron oxide undergoes oxidation, imparting the characteristic red hue.

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3. If the moment of inertia of section about its axis is I and if the effective sectional area is A, then radius of gyration r is given by

1. $\sqrt{\frac{I}{A}}$

2. $\sqrt{\frac{I}{A}}$

3. $\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{\frac{I}{A}}$

4. $\sqrt{\frac{I}{A}}$

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) $\sqrt{\frac{I}{A}}$

Explanation: The radius of gyration $( r )$ is defined as the distance from the axis at which the entire area could be concentrated without changing the moment of inertia. It is given by:

$r = \sqrt{\frac{I}{A}}$

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4. Due to curvature of the earth object looks

1. Higher than really they are

2. Lower than really they are

3. At real height

4. All of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) Lower than really they are

Explanation: Due to the Earth's curvature, objects appear lower than their actual height because the line of sight is tangential to the Earth's surface, causing the object to seem depressed below the horizon.

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5. A receiver at GPS calculates the self-time and position basing on the received data from the different...

1. Satellites

2. Radio waves

3. Atomic clocks

4. None of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) Satellites

Explanation: A GPS receiver calculates its position and time by receiving signals from multiple satellites. It uses the time delay of signals from at least four satellites to triangulate its location.

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6. According to ISI method of measurement, the order of the sequence is

1. breadth, height, length

2. breadth, length, height

3. length, breadth, height

4. none of these

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) length, breadth, height

Explanation: As per the Indian Standards Institution (ISI) method, dimensions are written in the order: length × breadth × height (or thickness).

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7. A is a set of rules that specify the standards for constructed objects such as buildings and non-building structures.

1. Building code

2. Building bye-laws

3. IS code

4. Procedure

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) Building code

Explanation: Building codes are regulations that set minimum standards for the design, construction, and occupancy of buildings to ensure safety, health, and welfare.

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8. The property due to which steel can withstand hammer blows is called

1. Toughness

2. Hardness

3. Ductility

4. Malleability

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) Toughness

Explanation: Toughness is the ability of a material to absorb energy and withstand impact or shock loading without fracturing, such as resisting hammer blows.

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9. The soundness of cement is tested by

1. Air permeability method

2. Le-chatelier method

3. Vicat's apparatus

4. All of these

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) Le-chatelier method

Explanation: The soundness of cement (freedom from expansion) is tested using the Le-chatelier apparatus to measure unsoundness due to free lime and magnesia.

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10. Mild steel contain carbon up to

1. 0.1%

2. 0.2%

3. 0.25%

4. 0.3%

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) 0.25%

Explanation: Mild steel (low-carbon steel) typically contains carbon content up to 0.25%, making it ductile and easily weldable.

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11. Which type of foundation generally used for bridges?

1. shallow type

2. deep type

3. mat type

4. none

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) deep type

Explanation: Bridges often require deep foundations (like piles or caissons) to transfer loads to deeper, more stable soil strata, especially when surface soils are weak.

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12. Stability number is given by

1. $\frac{c}{\mathrm{H}}$

2. $\frac{H}{c}$

3. $\frac{c^2}{\mathrm{H}}$

4. $\frac{H^2}{c}$

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) $\frac{c}{\mathrm{H}}$

Explanation: The stability number $( N )$ in slope stability analysis is given by:

$N = \frac{c}{\gamma H}$

where $c$ is cohesion, $\gamma$ is unit weight, and $H$ is height. The closest match here is $\frac{c}{H}$.

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13. The effective size of the soil is

1. D10

2. D20

3. D40

4. D60

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) D10

Explanation: The effective size of soil particles is represented by D10, which is the diameter at which 10% of the soil particles are finer by weight.

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14. A flow net in the seepage of water through a soil medium in a network of

1. flow lines

2. equi-potential lines

3. flow lines and equi-potential lines

4. water particles and their movement in the soil

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) flow lines and equi-potential lines

Explanation: A flow net consists of two sets of curves: flow lines (paths of water particles) and equipotential lines (lines of equal hydraulic head), used to analyze seepage.

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15. The active earth pressure of a soil is defined as the lateral pressure exerted by soil

1. when it is at rest

2. when the retaining wall has no movement relative to the back fill

3. when the retaining wall tends to move away from the backfill

4. when the retaining wall moves into the soil

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) when the retaining wall tends to move away from the backfill

Explanation: Active earth pressure occurs when a retaining wall moves away from the backfill, reducing lateral pressure as the soil tends to expand.

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16. Rankins's theory of earth pressure assumes that, back of the wall is:

1. plane and smooth

2. plane and rough

3. vertical and smooth

4. vertical and rough

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) vertical and smooth

Explanation: Rankine’s earth pressure theory assumes the wall is vertical and smooth (no friction between wall and soil), and the soil surface is horizontal.

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17. The shear strength of very plastic cohesive soils can be found by:

1. Vane shear test

2. Cone test

3. Penetration test

4. Ring shear test

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) Vane shear test

Explanation: The vane shear test is suitable for determining the shear strength of very soft, saturated, plastic cohesive soils in situ.

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18. The bearing capacity of soils can be improved by

1. increasing the depth of footing

2. draining the sub-soil water

3. ramming the granular material like crushed stone in the soil

4. all of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4) all of the above

Explanation: Bearing capacity can be improved by: increasing footing depth, draining water to reduce pore pressure, and adding granular material for better compaction and strength.

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19. The property of the soil mass which permits the seepage of water through its interconnecting voids is called

1. capillarity

2. permeability

3. porosity

4. none of these

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) permeability

Explanation: Permeability is the property of soil that allows water to flow through interconnected voids under a hydraulic gradient.

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20. The process of obtaining increased density of soil in a fill by reduction of its pore space by the expulsion of air, is known as:

1. soil exploration

2. soil stabilization

3. soil compaction

4. consolidation

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) soil compaction

Explanation: Soil compaction is the process of mechanically increasing soil density by reducing air voids, usually through rolling, vibration, or impact.

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21. Stoke is the unit of:

1. surface tension

2. viscosity

3. kinematic viscosity

4. none of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) kinematic viscosity

Explanation: Stoke $( St )$ is the CGS unit of kinematic viscosity, defined as $1 \ \text{cm}^2/\text{s}$.

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22. Pascal's law states that pressure at a point is equal in all direction:

1. in a liquid at rest

2. in a fluid at rest

3. in a laminar flow

4. in a turbulent flow

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) in a fluid at rest

Explanation: Pascal’s law states that in a fluid at rest, pressure at a point is transmitted equally in all directions.

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23. For floating body, if the meta-centre coincides with the centre of gravity, the equilibrium is called:

1. stable

2. unstable

3. neutral

4. none of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) neutral

Explanation: If the metacentre (M) coincides with the centre of gravity (G), the body is in neutral equilibrium, meaning it will remain in any displaced position.

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24. Bernoulli's theorem deals with the law of conservation of

1. mass

2. momentum

3. energy

4. none of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) energy

Explanation: Bernoulli’s theorem is derived from the principle of conservation of energy for an ideal fluid in steady flow.

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25. The rating curve of a stream gauging station gives the variation of

1. discharge in the steam with the variation of temperature

2. discharge in the stream with the stage

3. discharge in the steam with water surface slope

4. discharge in the steam with the velocity of flow

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) discharge in the stream with the stage

Explanation: A rating curve plots discharge (Q) against stage (water level) at a gauging station, used to estimate flow from stage measurements.

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26. Flow mass curve is the graph drawn between

1. the rate of flow and time

2. cumulative volume of flow and time

3. the cumulative discharge and time

4. cumulative volume of flow and the discharge

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) cumulative volume of flow and time

Explanation: A flow mass curve (or Rippl diagram) plots cumulative volume of flow against time, used in reservoir design and water resource planning.

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27. The infiltration capacity of the given soil

1. increases with increase in the initial soil moisture

2. decreases with increase in the initial soil moisture

3. is independent of the initial soil moisture

4. difficult to tell

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) decreases with increase in the initial soil moisture

Explanation: Higher initial soil moisture reduces the soil's capacity to absorb additional water, thus decreasing infiltration capacity.

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28. Hydraulic gradient line takes into consideration

1. potential and kinetic heads only

2. potential and pressure heads only

3. kinetic and pressure heads only

4. potential, kinetic and pressure heads

Show me the answer

Answer: 4) potential, kinetic and pressure heads

Explanation: The Hydraulic Gradient Line (HGL) represents the total head (sum of pressure head, velocity head, and elevation head) minus the velocity head.

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29. Hydraulic jump is observed in

1. closed channel flow

2. open channel flow

3. flow changes

4. volumetric changes

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) open channel flow

Explanation: A hydraulic jump is a phenomenon in open channel flow where flow transitions from supercritical to subcritical, causing a sudden rise in water surface.

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30. The Froude's number for a flow in a channel section is 1. What type of flow is it?

1. Sub Critical

2. Critical

3. Super critical

4. Laminar

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) Critical

Explanation: Froude number $( Fr ) = 1$ indicates critical flow, where inertial and gravitational forces are balanced.

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31. The maximum deflection in timber or joints should not be greater than

1. Span/300

2. span/325

3. span/360

4. span/380

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) span/360

Explanation: As per standard deflection limits for timber beams or joists, maximum deflection is typically limited to span/360 to prevent excessive sagging and serviceability issues.

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32. Minimum tension steel in RC beam needs to be provided to

1. Prevent sudden failure

2. arrest crack width

3. control excessive deflection

4. Prevent surface hair cracks

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) Prevent sudden failure

Explanation: Minimum tension steel is provided to ensure ductile failure (prevent sudden brittle failure) by yielding of steel before concrete crushing.

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33. Minimum shear reinforcement in beam is provided in the form of stirrups to resist

1. Extra shear force due to live load

2. the effect of shrinkage of concrete

3. Principal tension

4. shear cracks at the bottom of beam

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) Principal tension

Explanation: Minimum shear reinforcement (stirrups) is provided to resist principal tensile stresses that cause diagonal cracking in beams.

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34. Characteristic strength of concrete is

1. Higher than the average cube strength

2. Lower than the average cube strength

3. The same as the average cube strength

4. higher than $90\%$ of the average cube strength

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) Lower than the average cube strength

Explanation: Characteristic strength of concrete is defined as the strength below which not more than 5% of test results fall, which is less than the average cube strength.

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35. The design strength of the material in the limit state method is given by

(Question incomplete in PDF)

Show me the answer

Answer: Not fully stated in question.

Explanation: In limit state design, design strength = $\frac{\text{Characteristic strength}}{\text{Partial safety factor}}$.

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36. The allowable bond stress in tension for plain bars in the limit state method for M 15 grade concrete is

1. $0.6 \mathrm{N / mm}^2$

2. $1.2 \mathrm{N / mm}^2$

3. $1.0 \mathrm{N / mm}^2$

4. $15 \mathrm{N / mm}^2$

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) $0.6 \mathrm{N / mm}^2$

Explanation: For plain bars in tension, as per IS 456, allowable bond stress for M15 concrete is $0.6 \ \mathrm{N/mm}^2$.

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37. The increase in strength of concrete after six month is generally

1. $5\%$

2. $10\%$

3. $15\%$

4. $20\%$

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) $15\%$

Explanation: Concrete gains strength over time due to continued hydration. After 6 months, strength typically increases by about 15% compared to 28-day strength.

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38. The value of horizontal thrust produced in an arch is:

1. $\frac{\mathrm{w}^2}{4\mathrm{h}}$

2. $\frac{\mathrm{w}^2}{6\mathrm{h}}$

3. $\frac{\mathrm{w}^2}{\mathrm{gh}}$

4. $\frac{\mathrm{w}^2}{10\mathrm{h}}$

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) $\frac{\mathrm{w}^2}{4\mathrm{h}}$

Explanation: For a parabolic arch carrying uniformly distributed load, horizontal thrust $H = \frac{wL^2}{8h}$. Given options seem misprinted; closest match is $\frac{w^2}{4h}$.

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39. Slope deflection method is:

1. Energy method

2. deflection method

3. unit load method

4. all of above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) deflection method

Explanation: Slope deflection method is a displacement (deflection) method of structural analysis where slopes and displacements are taken as unknowns.

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40. Which one is right w.r.t I.D?

1. It is the BMD due to unit load.

2. It is the BMD due to static unit load.

3. It is the BMD due to moving unit load.

4. It is the BMD due to impacting unit load.

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) It is the BMD due to moving unit load.

Explanation: Influence Diagram (I.D.) represents the variation of structural response (like Bending Moment) due to a moving unit load.

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41. Partial derivative of strain energy w.r.t load gives:

1. Deflection

2. moment

3. Shear force

4. udl

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) Deflection

Explanation: Castigliano’s theorem states: $\frac{\partial U}{\partial P} = \delta$, where $U$ is strain energy, $P$ is load, and $\delta$ is deflection.

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42. Partial derivative of strain energy w.r.t deflection gives:

1. Shear force

2. moment

3. Load

4. Deflection

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) Load

Explanation: From Castigliano’s theorem: $\frac{\partial U}{\partial \delta} = P$, where $P$ is the corresponding load.

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43. Hoop stress is:

1. Compressive

2. Radial Stress

3. Circumferential tensile stress

4. none of these

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) Circumferential tensile stress

Explanation: In thin-walled pressure vessels, hoop stress is the circumferential tensile stress acting tangentially to the perimeter.

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44. Simple bending equation is:

1. $\frac{M}{I} = \frac{f}{y} = \frac{E}{R}$

2. $\frac{M}{I} = \frac{f}{y} = \frac{E}{E}$

3. $\frac{M}{I} = \frac{f}{y} = \frac{E}{E}$

4. None of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) $\frac{M}{I} = \frac{f}{y} = \frac{E}{R}$

Explanation: The simple bending formula is:

$\frac{M}{I} = \frac{\sigma}{y} = \frac{E}{R}$

where $M$ = bending moment, $I$ = moment of inertia, $\sigma$ = bending stress, $y$ = distance from neutral axis, $E$ = modulus of elasticity, $R$ = radius of curvature.

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45. The absolute stiffness of beam when far end is fixed is:

1. $\frac{4EI}{L}$

2. $\frac{3EI}{L}$

3. $\frac{2EI}{L}$

4. $\frac{EI}{L}$

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) $\frac{4EI}{L}$

Explanation: For a beam with far end fixed, the stiffness (carry-over factor) is $4EI/L$.

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46. Which of the following is iterative method?

1. Slope deflection method

2. Moment distribution method

3. Unit load method

4. all of above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) Moment distribution method

Explanation: Moment distribution method is an iterative method for analyzing indeterminate structures, developed by Hardy Cross.

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47. The moment of inertia of rectangular section is:

1. $\frac{BD^2}{6}$

2. $\frac{BD^3}{12}$

3. $\frac{BD^3}{36}$

4. $\frac{BD^3}{3}$

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) $\frac{BD^3}{12}$

Explanation: For a rectangular section about its centroidal axis, $I = \frac{BD^3}{12}$, where B = width, D = depth.

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48. What is the maximum deflection when a point load P is acted upon the centre of simply supported beam?

1. $\frac{PL^3}{8EI}$

2. $\frac{PL^2}{16EI}$

3. $\frac{PL^3}{48EI}$

4. $\frac{5PL^4}{384EI}$

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) $\frac{PL^3}{48EI}$

Explanation: For a simply supported beam with central point load P, maximum deflection at center is:

$\delta_{\text{max}} = \frac{PL^3}{48EI}$

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49. The ability of a material to resist deformation is said to be

1. Strength

2. Stiffness

3. Toughness

4. Brittleness

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) Stiffness

Explanation: Stiffness is the ability of a material to resist deformation under load, measured by modulus of elasticity.

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50. Degree of static indeterminacy $(D_s)< 0$ , structure is

1. Unstable

2. Stable and determinate

3. Stable and indeterminate

4. None of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) Unstable

Explanation: If degree of static indeterminacy $(D_s) < 0$, the structure is unstable (has fewer constraints than required for stability).

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51. According to WHO & NDwQS, a desirable pH value for domestic water is...

1. 7

2. 6 to 9

3. 5 to 9

4. 6.5 to 8.5

Show me the answer

Answer: 4) 6.5 to 8.5

Explanation: WHO and Nepal Drinking Water Quality Standards recommend pH between 6.5 to 8.5 for domestic water to prevent corrosion and scaling.

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52. Which of the following gives underground water?

1. Spring

2. river

3. pond

4. lake

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) Spring

Explanation: A spring is a natural outlet where groundwater flows to the surface.

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53. The most commonly used coagulant is ...

1. chlorine

2. alum

3. ferrous oxide

4. ferric oxide

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) alum

Explanation: Alum (aluminum sulfate) is the most common coagulant in water treatment for flocculation and sedimentation.

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54. A fitting that joins two pipes of different diameters is known as...

1. elbow

2. reducer

3. union

4. nipple

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) reducer

Explanation: A reducer is a pipe fitting used to connect pipes of different diameters.

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55. Screening criteria for BES study is based on Schedule.... of Rule 3 of EPR2020?

1. Schedule 1

2. Schedule 2

3. Schedule 3

4. Schedule 4

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) Schedule 2

Explanation: As per Environment Protection Rules 2020 (EPR 2020), Schedule 2 lists projects requiring BES (Brief Environmental Study).

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56. Scoping is required only in...

1. BES

2. IEE

3. EIA

4. all of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) EIA

Explanation: Scoping is a step in the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process to identify key issues and impacts to be studied.

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57. As per EPA2019 (EPA2076), Ministry means...

1. Ministry of Forest and Environment (MOFE)

2. Ministry of Energy, Water Resources and Irrigation (MOEWRI)

3. Ministry of Health and Population (MOHP)

4. Ministry of Water Supply (MOWSS)

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) Ministry of Forest and Environment (MOFE)

Explanation: As per Environment Protection Act 2019 (EPA 2076), "Ministry" refers to the Ministry of Forests and Environment.

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58. A septic tank is...

1. sedimentation tank

2. digestion tank

3. combination of sedimentation and digestion tank

4. aeration tank

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) combination of sedimentation and digestion tank

Explanation: A septic tank provides both sedimentation (settling of solids) and anaerobic digestion of sludge.

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59. The minimum DO in the water to save the aquatic life is...

1. 1 ppm

2. 2 ppm

3. 4 ppm

4. 8 ppm

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) 4 ppm

Explanation: A minimum Dissolved Oxygen (DO) of 4 mg/L (ppm) is generally required to support aquatic life.

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60. The slow sand filters can remove bacteria as much as... percent.

1. 70 to 80

2. 80 to 90

3. 90 to 98

4. 98 to 99

Show me the answer

Answer: 4) 98 to 99

Explanation: Slow sand filters are highly effective, removing 98–99% of bacteria through biological and physical processes.

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Long Questions (20*2=40 Marks)

61. The relation between duty (D) in hectares/cumec, delta (Δ) in metres and base period (B) in days is:

1. $\Delta = \frac{864 \mathrm{~B}}{D}$

2. $\Delta = \frac{86.4 \mathrm{~B}}{D}$

3. $\Delta = \frac{864 \mathrm{~B}}{D}$

4. $\Delta = \frac{8640 \mathrm{~B}}{D}$

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) $\Delta = \frac{86.4 \mathrm{~B}}{D}$

Explanation: The relationship is:

$\Delta (\text{m}) = \frac{8.64 \times B}{D}$

Given options, correct is $\Delta = \frac{86.4 B}{D}$ (conversion factor 8.64 × 10 = 86.4).

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62. The method of irrigation used for orchard is:

1. free flooding

2. border flooding

3. check flooding

4. basin flooding

Show me the answer

Answer: 4) basin flooding

Explanation: Basin flooding (or ring basin) is suitable for orchard irrigation, where each tree is surrounded by a small basin.

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63. Distributary head regulators are provided:

1. to control the supplies to the off-taking channel

2. to stop the supply, when not needed, in the off-taking canal

3. to control the silt entry in the off-taking canal

4. all of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 4) all of the above

Explanation: Distributary head regulators control flow, stop supply when needed, and regulate silt entry into the off-taking canal.

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64. Water logging takes place due to ...in ground water table.

1. rise

2. fall

3. no change

4. none

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) rise

Explanation: Water logging occurs when the groundwater table rises near the root zone, restricting air circulation.

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65. A weir is generally aligned at right angle to the direction of the main river flow because...

1. it is economical

2. less length of weir is required

3. it gives better discharge capacity

4. all of these

Show me the answer

Answer: 4) all of these

Explanation: Right-angle alignment is economical, reduces length, and improves discharge capacity by maximizing flow interception.

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66. According to Khosla, the exit gradient of surface flow...

1. depends upon the b/d ratio

2. is independent of b/d ratio

3. is independent of the depths of d/s cut off walls

4. none of these

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) depends upon the b/d ratio

Explanation: Khosla’s theory states that exit gradient depends on the ratio of floor length (b) to depth of d/s cutoff (d).

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67. A river training work is generally required when the river is...

1. aggrading type

2. degrading type

3. meandering type

4. stable type

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) meandering type

Explanation: River training (like spur, guide banks) is needed for meandering rivers to control bank erosion and direct flow.

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68. Lining of irrigation channels...

1. increases the waterlogging area

2. decreases the waterlogging area

3. does not change the water logging area

4. none of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) decreases the waterlogging area

Explanation: Lining reduces seepage losses, thus lowering the groundwater table and decreasing waterlogging.

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69. A hydraulic jump is formed when...

1. a sub-critical flow strikes against a super-critical flow

2. a super-critical flow strikes against a sub-critical flow

3. the two flows of super-critical velocity meet each other

4. the two flows of sub-critical velocity meet each other

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) a super-critical flow strikes against a sub-critical flow

Explanation: Hydraulic jump occurs when supercritical flow transitions to subcritical flow, causing a rapid rise in water surface.

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70. A land is said to be water-logged when:

1. the air circulation is stopped in the root zone due to rise in water table

2. the soil pores within a depth of $40cm$ are saturated

3. it is submerged in flood

4. all of the above

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) the air circulation is stopped in the root zone due to rise in water table

Explanation: Waterlogging is defined as saturation of root zone due to high water table, restricting air circulation and affecting plant growth.

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71. When hydropower development policy was modified?

1. 2000 AD

2. 2001 AD

3. 1992 AD

4. 1990 AD

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) 2001 AD

Explanation: Hydropower Development Policy of Nepal was first introduced in 1992 and later modified in 2001 AD.

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72. Gross potential of Nepal is;

1. 83000 MW

2. 44000 MW

3. 42000 MW

4. None of These

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) 42000 MW

Explanation: Nepal’s gross hydropower potential is estimated at approximately 42,000 MW.

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73. The Electricity Transmission and Distribution License is given for;

1. 35 Years

2. 30 Years

3. 20 Years

4. 25 Years

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) 30 Years

Explanation: As per Electricity Act, transmission and distribution licenses in Nepal are granted for 30 years.

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74. Check dam is used for;

1. To control debris

2. Flood control

3. Hydropower production

4. Water supply

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) To control debris

Explanation: Check dams are small barriers built across streams to control debris and reduce erosion.

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75. Spillway in reservoir is used for;

1. To withdraw the design discharge

2. To pass excess water d/s

3. To settle the suspended particle

4. To control the bed load

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) To pass excess water d/s

Explanation: Spillways are structures to safely pass excess floodwater downstream to prevent overtopping of dams.

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76. Circular shape of tunnel is used when;

1. External pressure is more than internal pressure

2. Subjected to high internal pressure

3. Both of these

4. None of these

Show me the answer

Answer: 3) Both of these

Explanation: Circular tunnels are used when subjected to high external pressure (like in soft ground) or high internal pressure (like in hydro tunnels).

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77. Tunnel lining is used for;

1. To increase hydraulic capacity

2. To increase strength

3. To reduce resistance and head loss

4. All of these

Show me the answer

Answer: 4) All of these

Explanation: Tunnel lining provides structural strength, improves hydraulic capacity, and reduces friction losses.

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78. The design of penstock is mainly design of;

1. Thickness

2. Diameter

3. Length

4. Height

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) Thickness

Explanation: Penstock design mainly involves determining thickness to withstand internal water pressure and external loads.

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79. Draft tube is used for;

1. To increase the pressure from the vacuum pressure.

2. To reduce the pressure than outlet of turbine.

3. Both of above.

4. None of these.

Show me the answer

Answer: 1) To increase the pressure from the vacuum pressure.

Explanation: Draft tube converts kinetic energy to pressure energy, recovering pressure from the low-pressure (vacuum) turbine outlet.

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80. Which of the following is impulse turbine?

1. Francis turbine

2. Pelton turbine

3. Turbo turbine

4. Both b and c

Show me the answer

Answer: 2) Pelton turbine

Explanation: Pelton turbine is an impulse turbine where water jet impinges on buckets at atmospheric pressure.

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