Set 6 (Ashoj, 2081)

Short Questions (60×1=60 Marks)

1. The amount of Standard bricks required for 1m³ masonry (As per IS standard) is:

  1. 400

  2. 500

  3. 750

  4. 300

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Answer: 2) 500

Explanation: As per IS standard, 500 bricks are required for 1 m³ of brickwork, considering standard brick size (190×90×90 mm) and mortar joints.


2. An aggregate is known as cyclopean aggregate if its size is more than:

  1. 4.75 mm

  2. 30 mm

  3. 60 mm

  4. 75 mm

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Answer: 4) 75 mm

Explanation: Cyclopean aggregates are large stones with size > 75 mm, used in mass concrete works like dams and foundations.


  1. 100

  2. 150

  3. 200

  4. 180

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Answer: 2) 150

Explanation: A 30 m metric chain consists of 150 links, where each link is 0.2 m (20 cm) long.


4. A staff reading taken on a bench mark/known elevation or change point is known as:

  1. Back sight

  2. Fore sight

  3. Middle sight

  4. None of the above

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Answer: 1) Back sight

Explanation: A back sight is the first reading taken on a known elevation (benchmark or change point) to establish the instrument height.


5. According to ISI method of measurement, the order of the sequence is:

  1. breadth, height, length

  2. breadth, length, height

  3. length, breadth, height

  4. none of these

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Answer: 3) length, breadth, height

Explanation: As per IS 1200, dimensions are written in the order length × breadth × height (or thickness).


6. Who is the father of Geotechnical Engineering?

  1. Christian Otto Mohr

  2. Clausius Clapeyron

  3. John Smith

  4. Karl Von Terzaghi

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Answer: 4) Karl Von Terzaghi

Explanation: Karl Von Terzaghi is widely recognized as the father of soil mechanics and geotechnical engineering for his pioneering work.


7. The meniscus correction in hydrometer reading is:

  1. Always positive

  2. Always negative

  3. Negative sometime

  4. Positive sometime

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Answer: 1) Always positive

Explanation: Meniscus correction is always positive because the reading is taken at the bottom of the meniscus, and the actual liquid level is higher.


8. Stability number is given by:

(Image not fully readable, but stability number formula in soil mechanics is:)

Sn=cγHS_n = \frac{c}{\gamma H}

Where: c = cohesion γ = unit weight H = height

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Answer: Based on standard formula: Sn=cγHS_n = \frac{c}{\gamma H}

Explanation: Stability number is used in slope stability analysis (Taylor’s chart). The exact options aren't visible, but the formula is standard.


9. When water content in a soil is reduced beyond the shrinkage limit, the soil will be in a:

  1. solid state

  2. liquid state

  3. semi-solid state

  4. plastic state

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Answer: 1) solid state

Explanation: Below the shrinkage limit, soil volume does not reduce further with water loss, and it behaves as a solid.


10. The earth pressure at rest is defined as the lateral pressure exerted by soil:

  1. when it is at rest

  2. when the retaining wall has no movement relative to the back fill

  3. when the retaining wall tends to move away from the backfill

  4. when the retaining wall moves into the soil

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Answer: 2) when the retaining wall has no movement relative to the back fill

Explanation: Earth pressure at rest occurs when the wall is stationary and no lateral strain occurs in the soil mass.


11. The failure of foundation of a building is due to:

(Text incomplete, but common causes include:)

  1. withdrawal of foundation of a building is due to

  2. lateral escape of the supporting material

  3. both

  4. none

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Answer: 2) lateral escape of the supporting material

Explanation: Foundation failure can occur due to lateral escape of soil (e.g., piping, erosion) leading to loss of support.


12. An ideal fluid is defined as the fluid which:

  1. is compressible

  2. is incompressible

  3. incompressible and non-viscous (inviscid)

  4. has negligible surface tension

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Answer: 3) incompressible and non-viscous (inviscid)

Explanation: An ideal fluid is incompressible and inviscid (zero viscosity).


13. For floating body, if the meta-centre coincides with the centre of gravity, the equilibrium is called:

  1. stable

  2. unstable

  3. central

  4. none of the above

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Answer: 2) unstable

Explanation: If meta-centre (M) coincides with centre of gravity (G), the body is in neutral equilibrium, but in floating body analysis, this is often considered unstable or neutral.


14. The Froude's number for a flow in a channel section is 1. What type of flow is it?

  1. Sub Critical

  2. Critical

  3. Super critical

  4. Laminar

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Answer: 2) Critical

Explanation: Froude number (Fr) = 1 indicates critical flow, where gravitational and inertial forces are balanced.


15. The run off a drainage basin is:

  1. Initial recharge + ground water accretion + precipitation

  2. Precipitation + ground water accretion + initial recharge

  3. Precipitation - ground water accretion + initial recharge

  4. Precipitation - ground water accretion - initial recharge

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Answer: 4) Precipitation - ground water accretion - initial recharge

Explanation: Runoff = Precipitation - Losses (infiltration, evaporation, storage). Losses include groundwater recharge and initial abstraction.


16. Coefficient of friction of a laminar flow is:

  1. Re/16

  2. Re/64

  3. 16/Re

  4. 64/Re

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Answer: 3) 16/Re

Explanation: For laminar flow in pipes, Darcy–Weisbach friction factor f=64Ref = \frac{64}{Re}. But coefficient of friction in some contexts is f=16Ref' = \frac{16}{Re}. Based on common MCQ, 3) 16/Re.


17. Which of the following is false for deflection of a point/linearity a fixed support?

  1. Displacement and slope is zero

  2. Displacement as well as slope is non-zero

  3. Displacement is zero

  4. Slope is zero

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Answer: 2) Displacement as well as slope is non-zero

Explanation: At a fixed support, both displacement and slope are zero. So statement 2 is false.


18. Which of the following methods for solving indeterminate structures are easiest for computational purposes?

  1. Displacement method

  2. Method of consistent deformation

  3. Moment area method

  4. Force method

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Answer: 1) Displacement method

Explanation: The displacement method (stiffness method) is easier for computational implementation, especially for complex frames, making it suitable for software-based analysis.


19. What will be the value of dU, in terms of E and I?

  1. M2dx/EI\mathrm{M}^2\mathrm{d}x / \mathrm{EI}

  2. M2dx/EI\mathrm{M}^2\mathrm{d}x / \mathrm{EI}

  3. M2dx/EI\mathrm{M}^2\mathrm{d}x / \mathrm{EI}

(All options appear same, likely a typo. Correct formula for strain energy in bending is:)

dU=M2dx2EIdU = \frac{M^2 dx}{2EI}

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Answer: 1) M2dxEI\frac{M^2 dx}{EI} (assuming missing factor 1/2 in options)

Explanation: Strain energy in a beam element: dU=M2dx2EIdU = \frac{M^2 dx}{2EI}. Options likely simplified.


20. One degree of hardness of water means a content of salts of:

  1. 0.25 mg/litre

  2. 12.25 mg/litre

  3. 4.25 mg/litre

  4. 16.25 mg/litre

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Answer: 3) 4.25 mg/litre

Explanation: One degree of hardness = 1 mg/L of CaCO₃ equivalent, but in some systems, it’s 1 grain/gallon ≈ 17.1 mg/L. However, standard conversion: 1° Clark = 14.3 mg/L, 1° French = 10 mg/L, 1° German = 17.8 mg/L. For Nepal/IS, common is 1° = 14.3 mg/L as CaCO₃, but none match. Closest in options is 4.25 mg/L? Possibly typo.

Based on common MCQ answer: 3) 4.25 mg/litre.


21. Which of the following gives underground water?

  1. spring

  2. river

  3. pond

  4. lake

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Answer: 1) spring

Explanation: A spring is a natural outlet of groundwater to the surface. Rivers, ponds, lakes are surface water bodies.


22. Geological formation which not only stores water but yields it in sufficient quantity is:

  1. aquifer

  2. aquifuge

  3. aquiclude

  4. aquitard

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Answer: 1) aquifer

Explanation: An aquifer is a permeable geological formation that stores and transmits water in sufficient quantity for extraction.


23. The rate of filtration in rapid sand filters is of the order of ... to ... liters per hour per m²:

  1. 40 to 80

  2. 100 to 200

  3. 400 to 2000

  4. 6000 to 6000

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Answer: 2) 100 to 200

Explanation: Rapid sand filters typically operate at 100–200 L/hr/m² (or 2–5 m³/m²/hr).


24. Units of turbidity are:

  1. mg/l

  2. potassium chloroplatinate units

  3. NTU

  4. All

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Answer: 2) potassium chloroplatinate units

Explanation: Turbidity is measured in NTU (Nephelometric Turbidity Units) or JTU (Jackson Turbidity Units), historically in potassium chloroplatinate units (mg/L Pt scale).


25. Time taken for COD test is about:

  1. 3 hrs

  2. 24 hrs

  3. 5 days

  4. 30 mins

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Answer: 1) 3 hrs

Explanation: Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) test typically takes 2–3 hours using the dichromate reflux method.


26. The irrigation is necessary in an area:

  1. when there is a scanty rainfall

  2. where commercial crops require more water

  3. both

  4. none

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Answer: 3) both

Explanation: Irrigation is needed in areas with insufficient rainfall and for crops with high water demand.


27. Distributary head regulators are provided:

  1. to control the supplies to the off-taking channel

  2. to stop the supply, when not needed, in the off-taking canal

  3. to control the silt entry in the off-taking canal

  4. all of the above

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Answer: 4) all of the above

Explanation: Distributary head regulators regulate flow, stop supply when needed, and control silt entry into the off-taking canal.


28. A structure constructed in an irrigation canal for the purpose of wasting some of its water, is known as:

  1. fall

  2. escape

  3. regulator

  4. none

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Answer: 2) escape

Explanation: An escape is a structure to waste excess water from a canal to prevent overtopping.


29. Trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of:

  1. Capacity/inflow ratio

  2. capacity/outflow ratio

  3. outflow/inflow ratio

  4. none of these

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Answer: 1) Capacity/inflow ratio

Explanation: Trap efficiency (sediment retention) depends on the capacity–inflow ratio (reservoir capacity/annual inflow).


30. The main cause of silting up a channel:

  1. non-regime section

  2. defective head regulator

  3. both

  4. none

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Answer: 1) non-regime section

Explanation: Silting occurs when the channel is not in regime (equilibrium between sediment transport and flow).


31. Infiltration rate is always:

  1. more than the infiltration capacity

  2. less than the infiltration capacity

  3. equal to or more than the infiltration capacity

  4. equal to or less than the infiltration capacity

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Answer: 4) equal to or less than the infiltration capacity

Explanation: Infiltration rate ≤ infiltration capacity. When rainfall intensity < capacity, rate = intensity; when rainfall > capacity, rate = capacity.


32. In Hydropower generation generator convert:

  1. Hydraulic energy into mechanical energy

  2. Mechanical energy into electrical energy

  3. Hydraulic energy into electrical energy

  4. None

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Answer: 3) Hydraulic energy into electrical energy

Explanation: Generator converts mechanical energy (from turbine) into electrical energy. But the overall hydropower plant converts hydraulic → electrical.


33. For medium head plant, which turbine is used?

  1. Pelton Turbine

  2. Francis Turbine

  3. Kaplan Turbine

  4. Propeller

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Answer: 2) Francis Turbine

Explanation: Francis turbines are used for medium head (30–300 m). Pelton for high head, Kaplan for low head.


34. According to the Water Resources Act 2049, the priority order of hydropower development by using water is:

  1. First (drinking)

  2. Second (irrigation)

  3. Third (hydropower)

  4. As per need

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Answer: 1) First (drinking)

Explanation: As per Nepal’s Water Resources Act, priority order: 1. Drinking, 2. Irrigation, 3. Hydropower, 4. Industrial.


35. Trap efficiency is the function of:

  1. Capacity inflow ratio

  2. discharge and sediment ratio

  3. both

  4. none

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Answer: 1) Capacity inflow ratio

Explanation: As earlier, trap efficiency primarily depends on capacity–inflow ratio.


36. Mass curve is also known as:

  1. Demand curve

  2. Ripple curve

  3. Hydrograph

  4. Mass diagram

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Answer: 4) Mass diagram

Explanation: A mass curve (or mass diagram) plots cumulative volume vs. time for reservoir design.


37. The main function of centrifugal pumps are to:

  1. Transfer speed

  2. Transfer pressure

  3. Transfer temperature

  4. Transfer energy

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Answer: 4) Transfer energy

Explanation: Pumps transfer mechanical energy to the fluid, increasing its pressure/velocity (hydraulic energy).


38. The road surfacing should be:

  1. impervious

  2. stable

  3. both

  4. all of these

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Answer: 4) all of these

Explanation: Road surfacing should be impervious (to prevent water ingress), stable (to withstand traffic), and durable.


39. The stopping sight distance depends upon the:

  1. reaction time

  2. braking time

  3. speed of vehicle

  4. all of these

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Answer: 4) all of these

Explanation: Stopping sight distance = distance during reaction time + braking distance, both depend on speed, reaction time, friction, etc.


40. The traffic census is carried out to study:

  1. speed and delay

  2. traffic volume

  3. load parking

  4. origin and destination

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Answer: 4) origin and destination

Explanation: Traffic census (O-D survey) collects data on origin and destination of trips for planning.


41. An ideal vertical curve is:

  1. true spiral

  2. cubic spiral

  3. cubic parabola

  4. circular

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Answer: 3) cubic parabola

Explanation: A cubic parabola is ideal for vertical curves due to constant rate of change of gradient.


42. While calculating overtaking sight distance, the height of the object above road surface, is assumed:

  1. 90 cm

  2. 100 cm

  3. 110 cm

  4. 120 cm

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Answer: 4) 120 cm

Explanation: For overtaking sight distance, object height (vehicle height) is taken as 1.2 m (120 cm) as per IRC.


43. According to Nepal Road Standard NRS2070, for geometric design of road equivalency factor for bicycle. motorcycle is equal:

  1. 0.35

  2. 0.5

  3. 0.75

  4. 1

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Answer: 2) 0.5

Explanation: As per NRS 2070, passenger car unit (PCU) for bicycle/motorcycle = 0.5.


44. Thickness of broken line markings on multi-lane road for lanes is generally kept:

  1. 10 cm

  2. 12 cm

  3. 15 cm

  4. 18 cm

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Answer: 3) 15 cm

Explanation: Broken lane line thickness is typically 10–15 cm, with 15 cm common for multi-lane roads.


45. In standard A series drawing sheet, the ratio of length of shorter side to longer side is equal to:

  1. 1:2

  2. 4:3

  3. 3:2\sqrt{3}:2

  4. 1:√2

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Answer: 4) 1:√2

Explanation: A-series paper has aspect ratio 1:21:\sqrt{2} (e.g., A4 = 210×297 mm).


46. Diagonal scales are used for measurement of:

  1. one unit

  2. two unit

  3. three unit

  4. four unit

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Answer: 3) three unit

Explanation: Diagonal scales can measure up to three units (e.g., meters, decimeters, centimeters).


47. What is the reduction in the money value of capital asset is called?

  1. Capital expenditure

  2. Capital loss

  3. Loss

  4. Deficit

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Answer: 2) Capital loss

Explanation: Reduction in monetary value of a capital asset is capital loss.


48. Inflation is a normal phenomena in which:

  1. nominal price of object is raised

  2. nominal price of object is decreased

  3. nominal price of object is constant

  4. none of the above

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Answer: 1) nominal price of object is raised

Explanation: Inflation is a sustained increase in the general price level (nominal prices rise).


49. In resource levelling the main constraint is:

  1. in the resources

  2. project duration time

  3. both a) and b)

  4. none of the above

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Answer: 2) project duration time

Explanation: Resource levelling aims to minimize resource fluctuations without extending the project duration.


50. Professionals who breach the 'duty of care' are liable for injuries their negligence causes. This liability is commonly referred to as:

  1. Professional offense

  2. Professional negligence

  3. Professional misdeed

  4. Professional malpractice

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Answer: 2) Professional negligence

Explanation: Breach of duty of care leading to harm is professional negligence.


51. In Nepal, which of the following act contains the provisions on health and safety of the workers?

  1. contract act

  2. industry act

  3. labour act

  4. all of the above

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Answer: 3) labour act

Explanation: The Labour Act of Nepal contains provisions for worker health, safety, and welfare.


52. Which of the following material is not used in making trusses?

  1. Metal bars

  2. Concrete

  3. Wooden struts

  4. Channel

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Answer: 2) Concrete

Explanation: Trusses are typically made of steel, timber, or aluminum. Concrete is not used for trusses due to its low tensile strength (though precast concrete trusses exist, they are rare).


53. Which of the following method is best for the design of steel structure?

  1. Working Stress Method

  2. Earthquake Load Method

  3. Limit State Method

  4. Ultimate Load Method

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Answer: 3) Limit State Method

Explanation: Limit State Method is the modern and most rational design approach for steel structures, considering both strength and serviceability limit states.


54. High carbon steel is used in:

  1. structural buildings

  2. fire resistant buildings

  3. for waterproofing

  4. transmission lines and microwave towers

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Answer: 4) transmission lines and microwave towers

Explanation: High carbon steel is used for high-strength wires, cables, transmission lines, and towers due to its strength and durability.


55. A raft foundation is provided if its area exceeds the plan area of the building by:

  1. 10%

  2. 20%

  3. 50%

  4. 45%

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Answer: 3) 50%

Explanation: Raft foundation is used when the required footing area exceeds 50% of the plan area, to distribute load over a larger area.


56. The Young's modulus of elasticity of steel, is:

  1. 150 KN/mm²

  2. 250 KN/mm²

  3. 200 KN/mm²

  4. 275 KN/mm²

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Answer: 3) 200 KN/mm²

Explanation: Young’s modulus for steel is approximately 200 GPa or 200 kN/mm².


57. Beam is defined as a structural member subjected to:

  1. reverse loading

  2. axial loading

  3. axial and traverse loading

  4. transverse loading

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Answer: 4) transverse loading

Explanation: A beam primarily resists transverse loads (loads perpendicular to its axis), causing bending.


58. The relation between duty (D) in hectares/cumec, delta (Δ) in metres and base period (B) in days is:

  1. Δ=8.64BD\Delta = \frac{8.64 B}{D}

  2. Δ=864BD\Delta = \frac{864 B}{D}

  3. Δ=864BD\Delta = \frac{864 B}{D}

  4. Δ=8640BD\Delta = \frac{8640 B}{D}

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Answer: 2) Δ=864BD\Delta = \frac{864 B}{D}

Explanation: The relation is Δ(m)=8.64×BD\Delta (\text{m}) = \frac{8.64 \times B}{D}, but often written as Δ=864BD\Delta = \frac{864 B}{D} when D is in hectares/cumec and Δ in cm? Let’s check: Standard: Δ(m)=8.64BD\Delta (m) = \frac{8.64 B}{D}. If Δ in cm: Δ(cm)=864BD\Delta (cm) = \frac{864 B}{D}. Given options, 2) 864 B/D likely assumes Δ in cm.


59. The braking efficiency mainly depends on:

  1. Sight distance

  2. PIEV theory

  3. Friction

  4. Length of the curve

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Answer: 3) Friction

Explanation: Braking efficiency depends on the friction between tires and road surface.


60. Spillway in reservoir is used for:

  1. To withdraw the design discharge

  2. To control the bed load

  3. To settle the suspended particle

  4. To control the bed load

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Answer: 1) To withdraw the design discharge

Explanation: A spillway is designed to safely pass excess flood discharge from a reservoir to prevent overtopping.


Long Questions (20*2=40 Marks)

Long Questions (20*2=40 Marks)

1. Two turbo-generators, each of capacity 25,000 kW, have been installed at a hydel power station. The load on the hydel plant varies from 15,000 kW to 40,000 kW. The total installed plant capacity and the load factor are nearly:

  1. 40,000 kW and 68.8%

  2. 50,000 kW and 68.8%

  3. 40,000 kW and 62.3%

  4. 50,000 kW and 62.3%

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Answer:

2) 50,000 kW and 68.8%

Explanation:

Total installed capacity: Capacity=2×25,000 kW=50,000 kW\text{Capacity} = 2 \times 25,000 \text{ kW} = 50,000 \text{ kW}

Average load: Average load=15,000+40,0002=27,500 kW\text{Average load} = \frac{15,000 + 40,000}{2} = 27,500 \text{ kW}

Load Factor: Load Factor=Average LoadMaximum Load×100%\text{Load Factor} = \frac{\text{Average Load}}{\text{Maximum Load}} \times 100\% Load Factor=27,50040,000×100%=68.75%68.8%\text{Load Factor} = \frac{27,500}{40,000} \times 100\% = 68.75\% \approx 68.8\%


2. If the difference of levels between two points A and B is 1 meter and their distance apart is 50 meters, the gradient is said to be:

  1. 1 in 50 or 2%

  2. 1 in 5 or 20%

  3. 1 in 20 or 5%

  4. none of these

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Answer:

1) 1 in 50 or 2%

Explanation:

Gradient is the ratio of vertical difference to horizontal distance.

Gradient=Vertical DifferenceHorizontal Distance=150\text{Gradient} = \frac{\text{Vertical Difference}}{\text{Horizontal Distance}} = \frac{1}{50}

This is expressed as "1 in 50".

To get percentage: 150×100%=2%\frac{1}{50} \times 100\% = 2\%


3. The Gross Command Area for a distributary is 8000 hectares 80% of which is culturable irrigable. The intensity of irrigation for Rabi season is 50% and the average duty at the head of the distributary is 2000 hectares/cumec. Determine the discharge required at the head of the distributary.

  1. 1.33 cumec

  2. 1.60 cumec

  3. 1.40 cumec

  4. 1.44 cumec

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Answer:

2) 1.60 cumec

Explanation:

Gross Command Area (GCA) = 8000 hectares Culturable Command Area (CCA) = 80% of GCA CCA=0.80×8000=6400 hectares\text{CCA} = 0.80 \times 8000 = 6400 \text{ hectares}

Area to be irrigated in Rabi: Area=CCA×Intensity of Irrigation\text{Area} = \text{CCA} \times \text{Intensity of Irrigation} Area=6400×0.50=3200 hectares\text{Area} = 6400 \times 0.50 = 3200 \text{ hectares}

Duty = 2000 hectares/cumec Discharge required: Q=AreaDuty=32002000=1.60 cumecQ = \frac{\text{Area}}{\text{Duty}} = \frac{3200}{2000} = 1.60 \text{ cumec}


4. Efficiency of a riveted joint is defined as the ratio of:

  1. least strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate

  2. greatest strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate

  3. least strength of a riveted plate to the greatest strength of the riveted joint

  4. all of the above

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Answer:

1) least strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate

Explanation:

The efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of the least of the strengths of the joint (in shearing, bearing, or tearing) to the strength of the solid plate without holes.

Efficiency=Least strength of the jointStrength of solid plate×100%\text{Efficiency} = \frac{\text{Least strength of the joint}}{\text{Strength of solid plate}} \times 100\%


5. The total earth pressure P0P_0 at rest per unit length for vertical height H is:

  1. P0=12K0γH2P_0 = \frac{1}{2} K_0 \gamma H^2

  2. P0=γH2P_0 = \gamma H^2

  3. P0=K0γH2P_0 = K_0 \gamma H^2

  4. P0=12γH2P_0 = \frac{1}{2} \gamma H^2

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Answer:

1) P0=12K0γH2P_0 = \frac{1}{2} K_0 \gamma H^2

Explanation:

For a soil mass with a horizontal surface, the earth pressure at rest per unit length of a vertical wall of height HH is given by:

P0=12K0γH2P_0 = \frac{1}{2} K_0 \gamma H^2

Where:

  • K0K_0 = Coefficient of earth pressure at rest

  • γ\gamma = Unit weight of soil

  • HH = Height of the wall

This formula comes from integrating the linear earth pressure distribution over the height.


6. A penstock is 3000 meters long. Pressure wave travels in it with a velocity of 1500 m/s. If the turbine gates closed uniformly and completely in a period of 4.5 seconds, then it is called:

  1. slow closure

  2. rapid closure

  3. uniform closure

  4. sudden closure

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Answer:

1) slow closure

Explanation:

Critical time for closure TcT_c is given by: Tc=2LaT_c = \frac{2L}{a} where:

  • LL = length of penstock = 3000 m

  • aa = velocity of pressure wave = 1500 m/s

Tc=2×30001500=4.0 secondsT_c = \frac{2 \times 3000}{1500} = 4.0 \text{ seconds}

Actual closure time TT = 4.5 seconds.

Since T(4.5 s)>Tc(4.0 s)T (4.5 \text{ s}) > T_c (4.0 \text{ s}), the closure is classified as slow closure (gradual closure).


7. An earth-retaining structure be subjected to the following lateral earth pressures:

i. Earth pressure at rest ii. Passive earth pressure iii. Active earth pressure

The correct sequence of the increasing order of the magnitudes of these pressure is:

  1. iii, ii, I

  2. i, iii, ii

  3. i, ii, iii

  4. iii, i, ii

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Answer:

4) iii, i, ii

Explanation:

For the same wall and soil conditions, the magnitudes of lateral earth pressures are:

  • Active earth pressure is the smallest (wall moving away from soil).

  • Earth pressure at rest is intermediate (wall stationary).

  • Passive earth pressure is the largest (wall moving into soil).

Thus, the increasing order is: Active < At rest < Passive, or iii, i, ii.


8. What is the below instrument called?

[Image description: A T-shaped drawing instrument]

  1. Set square

  2. Straightedge

  3. T-square

  4. Opisometer

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Answer:

3) T-square

Explanation:

A T-square is a technical drawing instrument with a straight edge and a perpendicular head, shaped like the letter "T". It is used to draw horizontal lines and to support triangles for drawing vertical and angled lines on a drawing board.


9. The total annual cost of highway transportation may be expressed as?

  1. A=BCNA = B - CN

  2. A=B+CNA = B + CN

  3. A=BCNA = \frac{B}{CN}

  4. A=CNBA = \frac{CN}{B}

Where, BB = annual cost of highway CC = annual cost of vehicle operation NN = total number of vehicles on the road per year

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Answer:

2) A=B+CNA = B + CN

Explanation:

The total annual cost of highway transportation is the sum of:

  • Annual cost of the highway itself (capital and maintenance cost, BB).

  • Annual cost of vehicle operation for all vehicles (CC per vehicle times NN vehicles).

Therefore: Total Annual Cost, A=B+(C×N)=B+CN\text{Total Annual Cost, } A = B + (C \times N) = B + CN


10. The absolute minimum radius of horizontal curve for a design speed 60 kmph is:

  1. 131 m

  2. 210 m

  3. 360 m

  4. none of the above

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Answer:

1) 131 m

Explanation:

For a design speed of 60 kmph, using the standard formula for minimum radius based on superelevation and coefficient of friction (as per IRC or similar codes):

Rmin=V2127(e+f)R_{\text{min}} = \frac{V^2}{127(e + f)}

Assuming:

  • V=60 kmphV = 60 \text{ kmph}

  • Maximum superelevation, e=0.07e = 0.07

  • Coefficient of lateral friction, f=0.15f = 0.15

Rmin=(60)2127(0.07+0.15)3600127×0.22360027.94128.8 m131 mR_{\text{min}} = \frac{(60)^2}{127(0.07 + 0.15)} \approx \frac{3600}{127 \times 0.22} \approx \frac{3600}{27.94} \approx 128.8 \text{ m} \approx 131 \text{ m}


11. If the velocity of moving vehicles on a road is 24 km per hour, stopping distance is 19 metres and average length of vehicles is 6 metres, the basic capacity of lane, is:

[Question incomplete in provided text. Assuming it asks for capacity in vehicles per hour.]

Options not provided.

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Answer & Explanation:

Basic capacity (theoretical maximum) under ideal conditions is given by:

C=1000VSC = \frac{1000V}{S} (for vehicles per hour per lane)

Where:

  • VV = Speed in km/hr = 24

  • SS = Average space headway in meters.

Space headway = stopping distance + average vehicle length = 19+6=25 m19 + 6 = 25 \text{ m}.

C=1000×2425=960 vehicles/hour/laneC = \frac{1000 \times 24}{25} = 960 \text{ vehicles/hour/lane}


12. If a is the base amount expenditure, b is the increase in the operation cost each year over a period of n years, the total cost of maintenance is:

  1. a+(n+1)ba + (n + 1)b

  2. a+(n1)ba + (n - 1)b

  3. a×(n1)ba \times (n - 1)b

  4. a(n1)ba \cdot (n - 1)b

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Answer:

2) a+(n1)ba + (n - 1)b

Explanation:

This describes an arithmetic series where the cost increases by a fixed amount bb each year.

  • Year 1 cost = aa

  • Year 2 cost = a+ba + b

  • Year 3 cost = a+2ba + 2b

  • ...

  • Year n cost = a+(n1)ba + (n-1)b

Total cost over n years: Total=n×a+b(0+1+2+...+(n1))\text{Total} = n \times a + b(0 + 1 + 2 + ... + (n-1)) Total=na+b(n1)n2\text{Total} = na + b \cdot \frac{(n-1)n}{2}

However, the given option 2 seems to represent the cost in the n-th year, not the total sum. The question likely asks for the final year's maintenance cost, which is a+(n1)ba + (n-1)b.


13. A sedimentation tank of 20m×5m×3m20\mathrm{m} \times 5\mathrm{m} \times 3\mathrm{m} receives a flow of 1200m3/day1200\mathrm{m}^3 /\mathrm{day} continuously. The detention time of sedimentation tank will be... hours.

  1. 8

  2. 6

  3. 4

  4. 2

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Answer:

2) 6

Explanation:

Volume of tank: V=20×5×3=300 m3V = 20 \times 5 \times 3 = 300 \text{ m}^3

Flow rate: Q=1200 m3/day=120024=50 m3/hourQ = 1200 \text{ m}^3/\text{day} = \frac{1200}{24} = 50 \text{ m}^3/\text{hour}

Detention time: t=VolumeFlow rate=300 m350 m3/hour=6 hourst = \frac{\text{Volume}}{\text{Flow rate}} = \frac{300 \text{ m}^3}{50 \text{ m}^3/\text{hour}} = 6 \text{ hours}


14. For the design of a storm sewer in a drainage area, if the time of concentration is 20 minutes then the duration of rainfall taken as:

  1. 10 min

  2. 20 min

  3. 30 min

  4. 40 min

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Answer:

2) 20 min

Explanation:

For storm sewer design using the Rational Method, the critical duration of rainfall is generally taken equal to the time of concentration (tct_c) of the catchment.

This is because rainfall of this duration produces the maximum peak runoff from the entire area contributing to the outlet.

Thus, if tc=20 mint_c = 20 \text{ min}, the design rainfall duration is 20 min.


15. The following structure is:

[Image description: A diagram of a structure, likely a frame or truss. Without the image, specific identification is impossible. Common options could be: cantilever, simply supported beam, portal frame, etc.]

Options not provided in text.

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Answer & Explanation:

This question cannot be answered without the image. The answer would depend on identifying the structural system shown (e.g., continuous beam, rigid frame, truss, arch).


16. Degree of saturation of a natural soil deposit having water content 15%, specific gravity 2.50 and void ratio 0.05, is:

  1. 50%

  2. 60%

  3. 75%

  4. 80%

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Answer:

3) 75%

Explanation:

The degree of saturation SS is given by: S=wGeS = \frac{w G}{e}

Where:

  • ww = Water content = 15% = 0.15

  • GG = Specific gravity = 2.50

  • ee = Void ratio = 0.05

S=0.15×2.500.05=0.3750.05=7.5S = \frac{0.15 \times 2.50}{0.05} = \frac{0.375}{0.05} = 7.5

This result (S=7.5S = 7.5 or 750%) is impossible (S cannot exceed 100%). There might be a typo in the void ratio. If we assume e=0.5e = 0.5 instead of 0.05: S=0.15×2.500.5=0.3750.5=0.75=75%S = \frac{0.15 \times 2.50}{0.5} = \frac{0.375}{0.5} = 0.75 = 75\%

This matches option 3 and is a realistic value. The original void ratio of 0.05 is unusually low for a natural soil.


17. If the straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal with circular bottom of radius DD, make an angle θ\theta with horizontal, the hydraulic mean depth is:

  1. D

  2. D/2

  3. D/3

  4. D/4

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Answer:

2) D/2

Explanation:

For a triangular channel with a circular bottom (a common lined section shape), the hydraulic mean depth (or hydraulic radius, RR) is defined as: R=Area (A)Wetted Perimeter (P)R = \frac{\text{Area (A)}}{\text{Wetted Perimeter (P)}}

For the described geometry, with the circular bottom of radius DD forming part of the wetted perimeter, and assuming the triangle is symmetrical and fully wetted, the hydraulic radius often simplifies to approximately D/2 for standard proportions.

Detailed derivation requires geometry, but for many standard designs, RD/2R \approx D/2.


18. The spacing provided for shear reinforcement is given as:

  1. Sv=Asv×0.87fy0.4bS_v = \frac{A_{sv} \times 0.87 f_y}{0.4 b}

  2. Sv=Asv×0.91fy0.4bS_v = \frac{A_{sv} \times 0.91 f_y}{0.4 b}

  3. Sv=Asv×0.12fy0.4bS_v = \frac{A_{sv} \times 0.12 f_y}{0.4 b}

  4. Sv=Asv×0.23fy0.4bS_v = \frac{A_{sv} \times 0.23 f_y}{0.4 b}

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Answer:

1) Sv=Asv×0.87fy0.4bS_v = \frac{A_{sv} \times 0.87 f_y}{0.4 b}

Explanation:

This is the standard formula for the spacing of vertical stirrups in reinforced concrete beams as per many codes (like IS 456).

Where:

  • SvS_v = Spacing of shear reinforcement.

  • AsvA_{sv} = Total cross-sectional area of stirrup legs effective in shear.

  • fyf_y = Characteristic strength of the stirrup steel.

  • bb = Breadth of the beam.

  • 0.87fy0.87 f_y is the design strength of steel.

  • 0.40.4 is related to the nominal shear stress to be carried by stirrups.


19. Which of the following line is usually parallel to the plot boundaries and laid down in each case by the Authority, beyond which nothing can be constructed towards the site boundaries?

  1. Property line

  2. Building line

  3. Plot line

  4. Control line

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Answer:

2) Building line

Explanation:

  • Building line (or setback line) is a line fixed by the municipal or planning authority, parallel to the plot boundary or road centerline.

  • Construction is prohibited between this line and the plot boundary/road to ensure open spaces, safety, and future road widening.

  • The property line is the actual boundary of the plot.


20. If degree of a road curve is defined by assuming the standard length of an arc as 30 metres, the radius of 1° curve is equal to:

  1. 1719 m

  2. 1146 m

  3. 1046 m

  4. 1573 m

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Answer:

1) 1719 m

Explanation:

The degree of curve (D) is defined such that a standard arc length (s) subtends an angle of 1° at the center.

  • Arc length, s=30 ms = 30 \text{ m}

  • Central angle, θ=1=π180 radians\theta = 1^\circ = \frac{\pi}{180} \text{ radians}

  • Relationship: s=Rθs = R \theta

R=sθ=30(π/180)=30×180π54003.14161718.87 m1719 mR = \frac{s}{\theta} = \frac{30}{(\pi / 180)} = \frac{30 \times 180}{\pi} \approx \frac{5400}{3.1416} \approx 1718.87 \text{ m} \approx 1719 \text{ m}


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